from what i understand of Emmanuel Kant is that he did not believe that humans have innate knowledge, so how does his categorical imperative fit his aposterori viewpoint? it seems inconstant

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"Bible knowledge without repentance, will be but a torch to light men to hell. -Thomas Watson
United Through Christ
Ricky Heeb
Grace Reformed Church (RCUS) Lancaster, CA

From what I recall -- it has been awhile since I was forced to read the Critique -- Kant taught that human beings, in order to think/learn anything at all about the world (a posteriori), must presuppose certain concepts: namely, space and time. These may be 'true' or may be merely mental constructs; we do not know. He called these concepts "a priori synthetic." Again, a priori synthetic concepts are just the necessary presuppositions behind a posteriori knowledge. We need them to know things.

If I am not mistaken, this framework is at work (sort of, anyway) with the Categorical Imperative, this moral principle being synthetic a priori. In order to find out whether act X is moral or immoral (something we should do or should not do) -- or, more to the Kantian point, whether a moral statement is true or false -- we need the Categorical Imperative.

Kant makes my head hurt...

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Nathan Tyler
Reformed Baptist
University of Toronto (Student: Hons. B.A. in Philosophy)
Ontario, Canada

1689'er

http://nathantyler.wordpress.com

Hi:

Nathan laid it out correctly. Space and Time are intuitions of the intellect which Kant claims are apriori. However, they are only constructions of the intellect which are imposed upon empirical (aposteriori) sensations received by the person. Consequently, not only are there no innate ideas, but the sensations which we receive from reality are subject to the interpretative framework of the mind.

In other words, man is blind because he sees, he is deaf because he hears. The objects of reality are filtered though the intuitions of the mind. Thus, man can know nothing because all reality is interpreted by the brain.

Kant claims that the Categorical Imperative, "So act that you would will the maxim of your action to become a universal law," is the only apriori idea. However, such a proposition is subject to interpretation! It is more of an assertion on his part than a provable fact.

Now that all of our heads are spinning:

Blessings!

Rob

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In Essentials Unity, in non-Essentials Liberty, in all things Charity.

Robert Paul Wieland
Springs Reformed Presbyterian Church
Colorado Springs, CO RPCNA
Student at Reformed Presbyterian Theological Seminary, Pittsburgh PA
Never be afraid to do something new. Remember, amateurs built the Ark, but professionals built the Titanic.

... wasn't he saposed to be a great contribution to philosophy? .... that just sounds lame... wouldn't it follow that his ideas for philosophy would be subjective and only the way they are because of the way HE interprets reality? and wouldn't that still undermine the categorical imperative because if we thought of certain morals as universal's and it sounds like he doesnt think universals exist than it's pointless to ask if a certain law is universally applicable.... ouch my head

Kant is to philosophy as Barth is to theology.

Kant was easy to dissect once you got beyond his apriori/posteriori false dicotomy. His Categorical Imperative, "So act that you would will the maxim of your action to become a universal law," made the freewillers seem like downright determinists.

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Timothy Johnson
First United Presbyterian of Moline
PCUSA (Yea, I know)
Theology/Philosophy Sunday School Teacher
Davenport, IA