First of all I want to make the point that nowhere in the new or old testament is it ever said that God has stopped speaking audibly to people or he will not speak audibly to people.
Reformed would say that with the Scripture completed, the doctrine laid by the prophets and apostles is now completed and the ordinary way God speaks is through His Word. The Holy Spirit illuminates our understanding as we study God's Word.
This is something that cessationists have reasoned up since we now have scripture, therefore everything must have ceased.
Usually that term is used to mean particularly unknown tongues and interpretation have, at least ordinarily ceased. In their context, they were a means of revelation.
It does not mean miracles of all kinds have ceased.
Consider the confessional summary of the doctrine of scripture...
Westminster Confession of Faith
Chapter V
Of Providence
...
III. God, in His ordinary providence, makes use of means,[10] yet is free to work without,[11] above,[12] and against them,[13] at His pleasure.
Even if you are a cessationist, and believe that that passage in 1 cor is speaking about the closing of the canon of scripture, it doesn't say that all signs or wonders will cease, it only says that prophecy and tongues will cease if I remember correctly.
I think that's right.
I Cor 12-14 though, as I understand it, in the case of unknown tongues and interpretation of unknown tongues in corporate worship has ceased though, because its purpose is fulfilled.
At that time, Scripture was not fully given so new revelation was actually coming in this way. The Word of God was not fully available to the Corinthians at that time.
Since the faith has now been once delivered to the saints (Jude 1:3) and the foundation of our faith laid by the prophets and apostles has been laid (Ephesians 2:20), something that was not true that time in Corinth, the means of special revelation has, at least in any ordinary sense, ceased.
Where does the bible say anywhere that God only speaks through scripture?
With the regulative principle in mind, one might ask...
With scripture complete, and self attesting to that fact, where does it establish special revelation outside of scripture.
(Remember, the regulative principle is we are to do what is explicitly commanded, not image we can do anything not explicitly prohibited. Understanding God's revealed will is governed by this.
And also on to a few examples, are we going to say that it was the devil or a delusion that leonard ravenhill heard when he was a young man, and he heard a voice behind him say Follow me, and from that point onwards he pursued full time ministry?
Are we to say that the devil said, or it was a delusion that Mark Driscoll had where God spoke to him and said "Marry this girl(forget her name), train men, preach the bible and plant churches".
We would need to know more context of this claim, however, suffice it to say, this would appear to directly contradict I Timothy 2:12. So a "revelation" to not obey what God has commanded through Scripture, would be invalid from the start.
Truth is were so scared of the charismatics were almost becoming liberal at least in our view of miracles.
Hopefully, many of us who have had exposure to charismatic/pentecostal influence in the past, pray that their communions will become grounded on the Word of God.
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