Now I apologize for if I am misquoting these verses, I know Greek a lot better than I know Hebrew, the word context used in the case or "our" in Isaiah 53 I think would suggest that Christ's death was sufficient for the case of humanity at large. The bold is not in any way to be taken as forceful words, sarcasm, or anything, only to bring note to the word choice.
5 But he was wounded for our transgressions;
he was crushed for
our [my question is to whom is this "our"] iniquities;
upon him was the chastisement that brought us peace,
and with his stripes we are healed.
6 All we like sheep have gone astray;
we have turned—every one—to his own way;
and the LORD has laid on him
the iniquity of us all.
For the sake of the argument, and perhaps my poor understanding, to whom would the "all" include? Similarly, although I'm mixing languages, one could argue that the "all" means only the elect, where similarly in Romans 3:23 Paul uses the word "all" for our depravity. If you understand where I am going with this.
1 John 2:2
He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.
1 Timothy 4:10
10For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe.
Titus 2:11
11For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people,
Now let me explain this in a better perspective. This is
not unlimited atonement. This is me joining that Christ did die for
all but He died for the
elect in a saving way.
I am by no means a great Bible scholar, but this (at least in my opinion upon commentaries from Calvin) seems to be the general original idea from Calvin, at least in my opinion. If one has an explanation for such verses that would be appreciated. But it is because of these verses I have the idea of unlimited-limited.
I suggest listening to the sermon I provided though, Pastor Mark will say it much better than me.
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Originally Posted by
Reformed Rush

Originally Posted by
SoliDeoGloria
Perhaps I might ask a question so I might better understand your answer.
This is quite hard to grammatically express:
Christ's death is known as a penal substitution. Christ's death shed the innocent blood for the remission of sins. How much sin is possible to be forgiven by the death of Christ? Only for the elect, or was Christ's death at the minimal efficient to forgive the sin of the world?
Limited Atonement is the teaching that Jesus Christ died only for those elected and given to Him by the Father to save (John 17:12-15).
His atonement was not limited in power or sufficiency, but in selective application.
Yes.
The blood of Christ was totally sufficient to save all, but God elected to only save "many."
my intention of saying was that our idea of election, (Unlimited-Limited for me) and limited atonement should not prevent the furthering of the Gospel.
That was essentially the point of my post.
Those of us who believe in Election and Limited Atonement, have no idea who God intends to save by His grace, so
we indiscrimately proclaim the good news of Jesus Christ to all, and leave the particular applications of saving grace, to the sovereign will and grace of God.
Then you and I are in agreement on this, I believe.
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