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Calvinism & The Doctrines of Grace Discuss TULIP, God's Sovereignty and Reformed Soteriology
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  #81 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 12:24 AM
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I don't actually understand why an HU would argue that a person is not responsible to respond to the Gospel if the atonement didn't extend to them in some sense nor do I understand why believing the atonement extends to the reprobate in some sense would affect who we proclaim this News to.
Rich as you know this is a much discussed topic and I don't have the time to rehearse all of the details of it here. For the last 25 years of my life I've aquainted myself with the arguments to and fro. But in a nutshell, what drives me to the conclusions I hold are the arguments of the divines I rehearsed (especially Calvin). In short they are:

[1] Exegetically I just can't explain away certain verses of Scripture (e.g. 1 John 2:2, John 3:16). I've read all the explanations that do explain them away, and (in my mind) they don't hold water. Owen is particularly unconvincing here. The arguments usually entail bad understandings of semantics and how words have meaning in context; the modern study of linguistics has taught us much.

[2] Concerning the WMO: strictly speaking a one-end view logically entails that we can't tell unbelievers to repent and believe (as Scripture clearly does), because the atonement might not be for them. It's not then an issue of us not knowing the hidden will of God so we should just tell everyone to repent and believe. We can't have the luxury of saying it's their duty to do so, because if the atonement is limited to the elect, then it has a limited duty to the elect; there is no (gospel) duty encumbent on the reprobate. The two wills of God do not apply that easily here, because the atonement's one-end (unlike say natural law) is for the elect alone, it entails no "universal duty". All the efforts to deny this, don't make sense IMHO. This is where I agree with people like John Murray, Scott Clark, and Ken Stebbins. This is where (exgetically) 1 Tim. 2:4 and Ezek are (to me) crystal clear.

[3] Concerning those who never hear, whether triple or double end ultimately ends in semantics. This is because Paul's words in Acts 17 speak of those who have general revelation do so in order that they may seek God and perhaps reach out and find him. General revelation should start the process which arrives at salvation (explicitly hearing the gospel). (I have a friend who recently became a Christian which all began from him seeking the God he concluded must exist from observing the wonder of creation over here in Australia).

I respect the opinions of those who differ with me on these points and will no way start telling them they're unreformed. The tradition has latitude here.

Anyway, my time is limited and I must run. I doubt I'll be around for the next few weeks. Thanks for the patience Rich, and God bless you richly.
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  #82 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 12:33 AM
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This is the difference between these eminent divines and yourself -- you maintain that Christ in some real sense died for all men without exception; they did not.
Matthew, with respect, please interact with the many citations I've made of the divines rather than preach at me. It will only generate heat not light.
I did interact with the "citations." It is in the portion of text previous to the sentence you quoted from my last post. These divines affirm hypothetical sufficiency or an indefinite reference in the atonement, but neither equates to a universal reference in the sense that Christ died for each and every man without exception. You are reading this universal reference into their words, which is what happens when you make an old divine dress in new clothes.

David Paraeus: "the death of Christ is also sufficient for their salvation, if they will but believe." -- "If" = Hypothetical sufficiency.

Jacob Kimodoncius: "For he truly gave himself a price of redemption sufficient for all, none excepted at all of the whole universality of men: but because the unbelievers do not apply redemption to themselves, the wrath of God abides on them. Also, he gave himself the price of reconciliation for all that belongs to the universality of the elect, and to his own body. Again, for all indefinitely, that is, for whomsoever Jews and Gentiles, high and low, masters and servants, as it has been often already said." -- "Whole universality" = indefinite universality, not all inclusive universality.

William Twisse: And accordingly professe that Christ dyed for all, that is, to obteyne pardon of sinne and salvation of soule for all, but how? not absolutely whether they believe or no, but only conditionally, to witt provided they doe believe in Christ." "Conditionally" = Hypothetical sufficiency.

[Note: The express purpose William Twisse enters into this argument is to refute a universal reference in the atonement. Quoting this section to prove something which was contrary to the writer's aim only serves to show ignorance of the original work. But this is typically what happens when authors are quoted second hand ad nauseam.]
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  #83 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 12:42 AM
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[1] Exegetically I just can't explain away certain verses of Scripture (e.g. 1 John 2:2, John 3:16). I've read all the explanations that do explain them away, and (in my mind) they don't hold water. Owen is particularly unconvincing here. The arguments usually entail bad understandings of semantics and how words have meaning in context; the modern study of linguistics has taught us much.
Brotheer Marty:

John 3;16 is easily understood when the correct rendering of the greek 'pas ho pisteuon' , which is whoever IS the believer. SHould be rendered:

16for God did so love the world, that His Son -- the only begotten -- He gave, that every one who is believing in him may not perish.

The present tense is the noun not the verb. And nothing is added to make this a continuous action.
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  #84 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 01:23 AM
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[Note: The express purpose William Twisse enters into this argument is to refute a universal reference in the atonement. Quoting this section to prove something which was contrary to the writer's aim only serves to show ignorance of the original work. But this is typically what happens when authors are quoted second hand ad nauseam.]
Dear brother Matthew,

I'm very saddened that you've said this because it is an attack on the person (trying to make them look stupid). Why? It generates heat not light. Moreover, you've made a statement in ignorance. I have exhaustively read Twisse's English writings for my PhD, and have not quoted anyone "second hand" (I quoted the primary source material). It was in reading Twisse that I was shocked to see what he said about the atonement, and it was he who started me looking further into it in the rest of the tradition.

I'm also perplexed by your explanations of the primary source material, because it's just not interacting with what they're saying. Scudder (for example) clearly says that all people have been made "saveable".

If you wish to disagree with my (and Muller's) reading of the soures, feel free. But I plead with you to refrain from attacking people. This is a board that conducts conversations before a watching world and we want Christ's name to be exalted in our generous and gracious conversation.

God's richest blessing to you my revered brother Matthew.
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  #85 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 01:35 AM
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Marty, if you have read Twisse, then you yourself know the main point he was making; I shouldn't have to clarify it for the sake of others who haven't read his work.

If you prize your reputation before the watching world, then you might think about being more cautious before staking your reputation on indefensible positions. If you engage with others who take a different view than you, then you should be prepared to have your scholarship questioned. Playing the victim is neither manly nor Christian. Charity is not so easily offended.
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Old 06-17-2008, 02:07 AM
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If you prize your reputation before the watching world, then you might think about being more cautious before staking your reputation on indefensible positions.
I've nowhere said that I prize my reputation. Mine is irrelevant. Christ's is everything.

So Richard Muller has an "indefensible position"? Brother please be more generous for the sake of Christ.
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Old 06-17-2008, 02:31 AM
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So Richard Muller has an "indefensible position"? Brother please be more generous for the sake of Christ.
Brother, I try by God's grace to be generous to people be they Christian or otherwise; but one should never be generous to a doctrinally erroneous position. 2 Corinthians 4:2.
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  #88 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 05:50 AM
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Absolutley not. For if He did, then they would repent. It isnt a game of hypotheticals. Scripture presents no hypotheticals, man does to wiggle away from His sopvereignty. Unless God does not get what He desires, or leaves it up to men to decide. If the later is the case, then we are most lost. Do you not find the thought that God wants all men head for head to repent, but yet does not provide an atonement for their sin? Now you want to talk about injustice, this is a vindictive arbitrary god (i cant even capitalize it) who would do that. Yet, since man cannot delve into the book of life, they can NEVER use this as an excuse. In fact noone in scripture has.

Man has a duty to repent and believe, but God has no duty in this regard. Besides the reprobate will never repent not believe, therefore it doesnt matter
So why does God command sinners to repent if, in some sense, he does not want them to repent? Is God pleased that they don't repent and continue living in rebellion against Him?
I think you are the one who has to answer this q Daniel, since you believe there is some latent desire in God and grace is actually conferred in preaching to all head for head. Scripture does not present the call to repent and believe designed for both reprobate and elect alike.

I do not know if He is pleased in the sense of Happy, what I do know is there end is sealed from the beginning and cannot be changed. There is no blood shed for the reprobate in ANY sense at all.
I fully agree that Christ did not die for the reprobate, and that there is no hypothetic universalism. However, this does not mean that, in some sense, God does not desire the wicked to repent.
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Old 06-17-2008, 08:43 AM
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If you prize your reputation before the watching world, then you might think about being more cautious before staking your reputation on indefensible positions.
I've nowhere said that I prize my reputation. Mine is irrelevant. Christ's is everything.

So Richard Muller has an "indefensible position"? Brother please be more generous for the sake of Christ.
Brother Marty, it is your duty to defend your own good name, just as Paul did.

Blessings friend.
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  #90 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 01:00 PM
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The only thing these eminent divines have been tarred with is misrepresentation. They simply do not teach what you want them to. They affirm that Christ died only for the elect. While they maintain there is an indefinite reference to mankind as a whole, they never state that Jesus Christ died for each and every man without exception. Again, while they allow a hypothetical sufficiency in the death of Christ should it have pleased God to apply it to each and every man without exception, they never state that Christ died sufficiently for the non-elect. This is the difference between these eminent divines and yourself -- you maintain that Christ in some real sense died for all men without exception; they did not.
Then all these men who are considered double enders at Dort and Westminster, were actually not? I am confused here Matthew. Is there such a thing as Amyrauldism then or not? IF so, then who was on that team at these 2 gatherings of the minds?
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  #91 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 01:01 PM
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So why does God command sinners to repent if, in some sense, he does not want them to repent? Is God pleased that they don't repent and continue living in rebellion against Him?
I think you are the one who has to answer this q Daniel, since you believe there is some latent desire in God and grace is actually conferred in preaching to all head for head. Scripture does not present the call to repent and believe designed for both reprobate and elect alike.

I do not know if He is pleased in the sense of Happy, what I do know is there end is sealed from the beginning and cannot be changed. There is no blood shed for the reprobate in ANY sense at all.
I fully agree that Christ did not die for the reprobate, and that there is no hypothetic universalism. However, this does not mean that, in some sense, God does not desire the wicked to repent.
Then you need to figure out what that sense is Daniel, not me.
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  #92 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 01:09 PM
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I think you are the one who has to answer this q Daniel, since you believe there is some latent desire in God and grace is actually conferred in preaching to all head for head. Scripture does not present the call to repent and believe designed for both reprobate and elect alike.

I do not know if He is pleased in the sense of Happy, what I do know is there end is sealed from the beginning and cannot be changed. There is no blood shed for the reprobate in ANY sense at all.
I fully agree that Christ did not die for the reprobate, and that there is no hypothetic universalism. However, this does not mean that, in some sense, God does not desire the wicked to repent.
Then you need to figure out what that sense is Daniel, not me.
This presupposes that no Biblical truths are above human reason.
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Old 06-17-2008, 01:28 PM
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I fully agree that Christ did not die for the reprobate, and that there is no hypothetic universalism. However, this does not mean that, in some sense, God does not desire the wicked to repent.
Then you need to figure out what that sense is Daniel, not me.
This presupposes that no Biblical truths are above human reason.
This one is not!!! By using the analogy of faith, we can conclude there is no desire for the reprobate to repent. We do not know who they are and neither do they. Do you not find it odd daniel, that there are examples of them repenting and still cast away? Judas, Saul, are 2..
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Old 06-17-2008, 01:32 PM
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I did some digging and found a Calvinist willing to state what he believes are the universal benefits of the limited atonement. Dr. Curt Daniel suggests several points, summarized as follows:

* Common Grace--C.H. Spurgeon said, “Christ hath bought some good things for all men - the common mercies of life.” “Every man receives that is good can be traced back to the atonement. He has Christ to thank for the sunshine he sees, the food he eats, the family he has, and so on. He deserves none of these, but Christ purchased them for him.”

* Delay of Wrath – all men deserve immediate wrath and judgment. Christ purchased a “stay of execution” for them.

* Lord of the Living and the Dead— Rom. 14:9, “For to this end Christ died and lived again, that He might be Lord of both the dead and the living.” By His death and Resurrection, Christ is now Lord of all men, both elect and reprobate. Chirst is the Lord of all—believer and unbeliever.

* Free Offer of the Gospel--Calvinists usually ground the universal free offer of the Gospel in the infinite sufficiency of the atonement. This is why the strictest views of the atonement tend to restrict or even deny the free offer, as in Hyper-Calvinism. Because there is more than enough food on the table, all are invited to partake, even though only few do.

Frankly, I have always wondered why the issue of Common Grace falls under the atonement. Nevertheless, here are some targets for some of you to shoot down.
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  #95 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008, 01:41 PM
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Then you need to figure out what that sense is Daniel, not me.
This presupposes that no Biblical truths are above human reason.
This one is not!!! By using the analogy of faith, we can conclude there is no desire for the reprobate to repent. We do not know who they are and neither do they. Do you not find it odd daniel, that there are examples of them repenting and still cast away? Judas, Saul, are 2..
So why are the wicked commanded to repent? Are you saying that God commands them to embrace Christ but he does not want them to embrace Christ?
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Old 06-17-2008, 02:59 PM
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This presupposes that no Biblical truths are above human reason.
This one is not!!! By using the analogy of faith, we can conclude there is no desire for the reprobate to repent. We do not know who they are and neither do they. Do you not find it odd daniel, that there are examples of them repenting and still cast away? Judas, Saul, are 2..
So why are the wicked commanded to repent? Are you saying that God commands them to embrace Christ but he does not want them to embrace Christ?
You are the one saying that, not I. God provides what He requires Daniel. The Gospel has a distinction between elect and reprobate. One it is life, the other it is death. We preach to all men, but it is not FOR all men. All I know is God get's what He wants and desired Daniel. You leave God disappointed..
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Old 06-17-2008, 07:23 PM
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This one is not!!! By using the analogy of faith, we can conclude there is no desire for the reprobate to repent. We do not know who they are and neither do they. Do you not find it odd daniel, that there are examples of them repenting and still cast away? Judas, Saul, are 2..
So why are the wicked commanded to repent? Are you saying that God commands them to embrace Christ but he does not want them to embrace Christ?
You are the one saying that, not I. God provides what He requires Daniel. The Gospel has a distinction between elect and reprobate. One it is life, the other it is death. We preach to all men, but it is not FOR all men. All I know is God get's what He wants and desired Daniel. You leave God disappointed..
God commands all men to obey Him and is angry when they rebel; if you can accept that, then why can you not accept that he wants sinners to repent?
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Old 06-17-2008, 07:44 PM
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