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Calvinism & The Doctrines of Grace Discuss TULIP, God's Sovereignty and Reformed Soteriology
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Old 06-12-2008, 02:15 PM
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Old 06-12-2008, 02:24 PM
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What it means to be reformed

No, someone who claims to be a 4-pointer is either really a 5-pointer who misunderstands the fifth point (definite atonement), or one who is no calvinist at all. There are theologians who could would probably fit into a 4.5 point calvinist cathegory like James Ussher and Charles Hodge, becauce while they maintain that the atonement was definite for the elects, they say that it also contains some universal benefits and proffers to both the elects and reprobates, and so in this sense Christ died "especially" for the elects, but not for them only. Like John Owen, I personally hold to a strictly limited atonement, without any bits of grace for the reprobates. I also deny that Christ died to purchase common grace for all men, unlike some Reformed theologian hold, since common grace is more properly called "providential goodness" and does not need atonement to be bestowed.

To be labelled as "reformed," one must hold to all the following:

-A reformed confession (may also include LBC 1689).
-The Regulative Principle (with some calvinistic hymns permitted with moderation).
-Sabbath-keeping.
-Covenant theology (those who hold to NCT or Dispensationalism are not truly reformed).
-Reformed soteriology (the 5-points etc).
-strict or moderate cessationism (those who believe that supernatural gifts of prophecy and tongue-speaking are still commonly around (like C. J. Mahaney) are not truly reformed.

According to this list, it is possible for a baptist to be "reformed," like Spurgeon and John Gill, but the large majority of calvinistic baptists would not necessarily qualify.
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Old 06-12-2008, 02:41 PM
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One of the many helfpul things I have learned from the PB is the definition of Reformed. Just because someone holds to the 5 points of Calvinism certainly doesn't make him reformed. He may be reformed in his soteriology, but there are many other factors involved in calling oneself Reformed. So, if one is a "4 point" Calvinist then I don't think they should call themselves Reformed at all, not even in their soteriology. He may be on his way to being reformed soteriology wise, but he probably has a long way to go to grasp a full understanding of what it means to be truly Reformed.
Although a 4 point calvinist could (and did) call themselves a puritan.
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Old 06-12-2008, 05:40 PM
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The wading pool is getting deeper...


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Old 06-13-2008, 05:10 AM
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[...]The point being limited atonement. He can accept the doctrine of election with no problem but why he can't see particular redemption is beyond me. Why is that so difficult for so many to accept?
In my experience it's because there are a raft of verses which suggest that Christ died for more than the elect; he died for the "world", "all" etc. (John 3:16; 1 Tim. 4:10 ...).

Moreover, in my experience, "limited atonement" is regularly misconstrued by all sides of the debate. The popular books on the 5 points of Calvinism often misrepresent Dort concerning particular redemption. For a look at the primary sources in the reformed tradition go here.
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Old 06-13-2008, 08:54 AM
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Originally Posted by Reformingstudent View Post
[...]The point being limited atonement. He can accept the doctrine of election with no problem but why he can't see particular redemption is beyond me. Why is that so difficult for so many to accept?
In my experience it's because there are a raft of verses which suggest that Christ died for more than the elect; he died for the "world", "all" etc. (John 3:16; 1 Tim. 4:10 ...).

Moreover, in my experience, "limited atonement" is regularly misconstrued by all sides of the debate. The popular books on the 5 points of Calvinism often misrepresent Dort concerning particular redemption. For a look at the primary sources in the reformed tradition go here.
Can you be a little more direct? What in your view is the essence of the misrepresentation of Dort with respect to particular redemption?
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Old 06-13-2008, 12:17 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Reformingstudent View Post
[...]The point being limited atonement. He can accept the doctrine of election with no problem but why he can't see particular redemption is beyond me. Why is that so difficult for so many to accept?
In my experience it's because there are a raft of verses which suggest that Christ died for more than the elect; he died for the "world", "all" etc. (John 3:16; 1 Tim. 4:10 ...).

Moreover, in my experience, "limited atonement" is regularly misconstrued by all sides of the debate. The popular books on the 5 points of Calvinism often misrepresent Dort concerning particular redemption. For a look at the primary sources in the reformed tradition go here.


The Heidleberg Catechism is considered to be 'Reformed' yet it leans very heavily toward the UL position. See this thread: The Heidelberg Catechism and unlimited atonement
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Old 06-13-2008, 12:35 PM
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Can you be a little more direct? What in your view is the essence of the misrepresentation of Dort with respect to particular redemption?
Sure. Most of the early reformed tradition, and indeed Dort, did see a universal end as well as a particular end in the atonement. This is, at least, what somone like Richard Muller would seem to affirm (so here). Moreover, the school of Saumur (in Muller's eyes) fits in with Dort (so here).

This universal end (alongside of the particular end) in the atonement was affirmed to make sense of the classic universal texts (esp. 1 John 2:2).

The issue of "limited atonement" is a little more subtle than just the standard statement "Christ died for the elect".

God bless Todd.
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Old 06-13-2008, 02:35 PM
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"The language of Amyraldus, the Marrow Men, Baxter, Wardlaw, Richards, and Brown is now used to cover much more serious departures from the truth. All really consistent Calvinists ought to have learned by now that the original position of the great writers and confessions of the Reformed Churches have only been confused, and neither improved, strengthened nor illustrated, by all the talk with which the Church has . . . been distracted as to the ‘double will’ of God, or the ‘double reference’ of the Atonement. If men will be consistent in their adherence to these ‘Novelties,’ they must become Arminians. If they would hold consistently to the essential principles of Calvinism, they must discard the ‘Novelties’.” (A. A. Hodge, The Atonement, Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1953, pp. 374-375)
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Old 06-13-2008, 02:48 PM
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Limited Atonement, easier to prove than Justification by Faith alone

In the "Cause of God and Truth" John Gill points out that the attacks that Arminians have launched against the doctrine of limited atonement have basically been centered around the same argument that the Roman Catholics have against justification by faith alone. That is, because the Bible certainly does not add the word "only" or "alone" for both doctrine, then it is wrong for us to add it. From studying the question personally, I came to the conclusion that the doctrine of justification by faith alone was actually harder to prove from Scripture than that of Christ dying for the elects alone. Compare the following passages, and tell me which ones appear more paradoxial:

28Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. (Rom. 3:28).

1Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ (Rom. 5:1).

24Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
(James 2:24).

15just as the Father knows me and I know the Father—and I lay down my life for the sheep. (John 10:15)

25Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it; (Eph. 5:25)

2And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. (1 John 2:2)

Because the words "world" and "all men" in the Bible are quite ambiguous, and definitely more so than the word "works", the doctrine of limited atonement is actually easier to prove (at least in my perception) from Scripture than that of justification by faith alone. And yet, Arminians and those Bible thumbers who have thrown these "universal" passages in opposition to Christ dying for the elect only have completely disregarded the same problem that they could have had by applying their same arguments to justification.
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Old 06-14-2008, 12:20 AM
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Dear Neogillist,

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Originally Posted by Neogillist View Post
Because the words "world" and "all men" in the Bible are quite ambiguous, and definitely more so than the word "works",
Linguistically speaking words are not "ambiguous" per se. Almost every word we use has more than one meaning, but that doesn't make them ambiguous. How do we know which meaning a word takes when it is used? The answer (scientifically) is context. Hence, when we see words like "works", "justification", "all", "world" used, it is the context that determines their meaning. This is just standard linguistics.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Neogillist View Post
[...] the doctrine of limited atonement is actually easier to prove (at least in my perception) from Scripture than that of justification by faith alone.
I struggle to agree with this. All one has to do is look at the Christian tradition to see the disagreement over limited atonement and justification. It is the former that has cause way more of a stir.

Your problem with James 2:24 is easily solved when contextually we see that James uses the word "justification" in a very different sense to Paul. In context James is talking about how one shows they are Christian (justification = "to prove righteous"), whereas in context Paul is talking about how one becomes a Christian (justification = "to declare righteous"). Tyndale, Calvin, et. al. showed that a long time ago. It's never been a problem.

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Originally Posted by Neogillist View Post
And yet, Arminians and those Bible thumbers who have thrown these "universal" passages in opposition to Christ dying for the elect [...]
Arminians may use those passages "in opposition" to the particular passages, but the vast majority of the early reformed tradition formulated a harmony between them. That's precisely the point.

God bless you.
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Old 06-14-2008, 12:34 AM
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Dear Brother Gomarus,

Quote:
Originally Posted by Gomarus View Post
"The language of Amyraldus, the Marrow Men, Baxter, Wardlaw, Richards, and Brown [...]
... Luther, Zwingli, Calvin, Oecomlampadius, Pierre Viret, Peter Martyr Vermigli, Heinrich Bullinger, Wolfgang Musculus, Ursinus, Paraeus, Kimedoncius, Zanchius, William Twisse, Robert Rollock, Coverdale, Bucanus, Keckermann, Scudder, Manton, Flavel, ... (see here)

This precisely is the point that is being questioned by people like Richard Muller. The reformed tradition may well have been misread when it comes to a universal element in the atonement. A. A. Hodge is a part of that tradition that may well have misconstrued the tradition. Moreover, his father Charles Hodge held a different position to him (see his Systematic Theology).

Every blessing dear brother.
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Old 06-14-2008, 04:10 AM
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Marty,

I'm uncomfortable with your ambiguity here and I want to be very explicit so you might determine whether or not you are within the boundaries of discussion that we permit on this board.

This is what the Confessions define by Limited Atonement that we affirm here unequivocally. You will have to decide whether you can bound your opinions to this view or not:

Quote:
V. The Lord Jesus, by his perfect obedience and sacrifice of himself, which he through the eternal Spirit once offered up unto God, hath fully satisfied the justice of his Father; and purchased not only reconciliation, but an everlasting inheritance in the kingdom of heaven, for all those whom the Father hath given unto him.
and further:
Quote:
Article 3: The Infinite Value of Christ's Death

This death of God's Son is the only and entirely complete sacrifice and satisfaction for sins; it is of infinite value and worth, more than sufficient to atone for the sins of the whole world.

Article 8: The Saving Effectiveness of Christ's Death

For it was the entirely free plan and very gracious will and intention of God the Father that the enlivening and saving effectiveness of his Son's costly death should work itself out in all his chosen ones, in order that he might grant justifying faith to them only and thereby lead them without fail to salvation. In other words, it was God's will that Christ through the blood of the cross (by which he confirmed the new covenant) should effectively redeem from every people, tribe, nation, and language all those and only those who were chosen from eternity to salvation and given to him by the Father; that he should grant them faith (which, like the Holy Spirit's other saving gifts, he acquired for them by his death); that he should cleanse them by his blood from all their sins, both original and actual, whether committed before or after their coming to faith; that he should faithfully preserve them to the very end; and that he should finally present them to himself, a glorious people, without spot or wrinkle.

The Synod rejects those...

VI Who make use of the distinction between obtaining and applying in order to instill in the unwary and inexperienced the opinion that God, as far as he is concerned, wished to bestow equally upon all people the benefits which are gained by Christ's death; but that the distinction by which some rather than others come to share in the forgiveness of sins and eternal life depends on their own free choice (which applies itself to the grace offered indiscriminately) but does not depend on the unique gift of mercy which effectively works in them, so that they, rather than others, apply that grace to themselves.

I frankly don't know how one can read the Book of Hebrews about the once-for-all, perfectly sufficient sacrifice and intercessory work of Christ for His own and come to the conclusion that its benefits are applied in any but a limited fashion. To conclude otherwise is to conclude that something more must be added to the Sacrifice to propitiate the wrath of God.

The analogy of faith demands that we do more than read a sentence in 1 Tim 4 that doesn't elaborate on the precise nature of the Atonement itself and use that to overthrow what we know about the nature of the Atonement from lengthy didactic passages elsewhere. I also reject your assertion that there are a "rash of verses" that speak about Christ dying for all men and John 3:16 is hardly a prooftext for this when the only spoken of as having obtained any benefit from the One sent are the believing ones. Would you care to document the "rash of verses" that speak of a universal atonement or are 1 Tim 4 and John 3:16 the two you had in mind?

Now, if you are arguing toward some sort of view that sees a more universal aspect in the offer of salvation itself to men at large then that is one thing but to argue that Christ's Sacrifice was efficient to atone for the sins of all mankind and that something must be mixed with/added to the Atonement is not permitted here.
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Old 06-14-2008, 09:28 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by toddpedlar View Post
Can you be a little more direct? What in your view is the essence of the misrepresentation of Dort with respect to particular redemption?
Sure. Most of the early reformed tradition, and indeed Dort, did see a universal end as well as a particular end in the atonement. This is, at least, what somone like Richard Muller would seem to affirm (so here). Moreover, the school of Saumur (in Muller's eyes) fits in with Dort (so here).

This universal end (alongside of the particular end) in the atonement was affirmed to make sense of the classic universal texts (esp. 1 John 2:2).

The issue of "limited atonement" is a little more subtle than just the standard statement "Christ died for the elect".

God bless Todd.
I'm not sure it's so simple, Marty. What does "atonement" mean if it doesn't mean "redemption"?

In what sense (consistent with Dort, Westminster, etc.) can anybody claim that Jesus ATONED for the sin of any but the elect? There is no such sense, of course, since the Biblical picture of atonement is a one-for-one exchange which redeems. I can't see any consistency between Dort/Westminster and any "intent" on God's part in providing atonement/redemption for any but the elect. Those confessions (and indeed the confessional standards that are upheld in this board) are crystal clear with respect to God's intent in providing Christ as the propitiation for sin. Those who claim an intent or will of God to give Christ as exchange for non-elect (which will/intent is thwarted by the conditional response of the individual) are simply at odds with our confessional standards (and with Scripture).

Can you clarify your position?
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Old 06-14-2008, 11:18 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Semper Fidelis View Post
Marty,

I'm uncomfortable with your ambiguity here and I want to be very explicit so you might determine whether or not you are within the boundaries of discussion that we permit on this board.

This is what the Confessions define by Limited Atonement that we affirm here unequivocally. You will have to decide whether you can bound your opinions to this view or not:

Quote:
V. The Lord Jesus, by his perfect obedience and sacrifice of himself, which he through the eternal Spirit once offered up unto God, hath fully satisfied the justice of his Father; and purchased not only reconciliation, but an everlasting inheritance in the kingdom of heaven, for all those whom the Father hath given unto him.
and further:
Quote:
Article 3: The Infinite Value of Christ's Death

This death of God's Son is the only and entirely complete sacrifice and satisfaction for sins; it is of infinite value and worth, more than sufficient to atone for the sins of the whole world.

Article 8: The Saving Effectiveness of Christ's Death

For it was the entirely free plan and very gracious will and intention of God the Father that the enlivening and saving effectiveness of his Son's costly death should work itself out in all his chosen ones, in order that he might grant justifying faith to them only and thereby lead them without fail to salvation. In other words, it was God's will that Christ through the blood of the cross (by which he confirmed the new covenant) should effectively redeem from every people, tribe, nation, and language all those and only those who were chosen from eternity to salvation and given to him by the Father; that he should grant them faith (which, like the Holy Spirit's other saving gifts, he acquired for them by his death); that he should cleanse them by his blood from all their sins, both original and actual, whether committed before or after their coming to faith; that he should faithfully preserve them to the very end; and that he should finally present them to himself, a glorious people, without spot or wrinkle.

The Synod rejects those...

VI Who make use of the distinction between obtaining and applying in order to instill in the unwary and inexperienced the opinion that God, as far as he is concerned, wished to bestow equally upon all people the benefits which are gained by Christ's death; but that the distinction by which some rather than others come to share in the forgiveness of sins and eternal life depends on their own free choice (which applies itself to the grace offered indiscriminately) but does not depend on the unique gift of mercy which effectively works in them, so that they, rather than others, apply that grace to themselves.

I frankly don't know how one can read the Book of Hebrews about the once-for-all, perfectly sufficient sacrifice and intercessory work of Christ for His own and come to the conclusion that its benefits are applied in any but a limited fashion. To conclude otherwise is to conclude that something more must be added to the Sacrifice to propitiate the wrath of God.
I whole heartedly agree.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Semper Fidelis View Post
The analogy of faith demands that we do more than read a sentence in 1 Tim 4 that doesn't elaborate on the precise nature of the Atonement itself and use that to overthrow what we know about the nature of the Atonement from lengthy didactic passages elsewhere.
Well put!

I just realized we are in "The Wading Pool" so I want to state for the record that I believe the Bible teaches LA.

But, the OP asked if someone could hold to UA and still be called 'Reformed'. It would be difficult, IMO, to deny UAers the title of 'Reformed' because one of the Reformed confessions (which is an accepted confession on PB) sure sounds a lot like UA.

Quote:
HC Question 37. What dost thou understand by the words, "He suffered"?

Answer: That he, all the time that he lived on earth, but especially at the end of his life, sustained in body and soul, the wrath of God against the sins of all mankind: (a) that so by his passion, as the only propitiatory sacrifice, (b) he might redeem our body and soul from everlasting damnation, (c) and obtain for us the favour of God, righteousness and eternal life.
I think the WCF was an improvement over the HC in this area.
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Old 06-14-2008, 11:24 AM
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But, the OP asked if someone could hold to UA and still be called 'Reformed'. It would be difficult, IMO, to deny UAers the title of 'Reformed' because one of the Reformed confessions (which is an accepted confession on PB) sure sounds a lot like UA.

Quote:
HC Question 37. What dost thou understand by the words, "He suffered"?

Answer: That he, all the time that he lived on earth, but especially at the end of his life, sustained in body and soul, the wrath of God against the sins of all mankind: (a) that so by his passion, as the only propitiatory sacrifice, (b) he might redeem our body and soul from everlasting damnation, (c) and obtain for us the favour of God, righteousness and eternal life.
Except, Ken, that just like in Scripture, the HC cannot be taken piecewise without reference to context and the other teachings that are explicitly in it that deny UA. (just as you were answered clearly when you asked if the HC taught unlimited a