This may seem like a strange question as Christ Himself was sinless, but is there any sense in which we could accurately say that Christ was justified?

If Christ is sinless then what is the necessity of Him being justified? It is a strange question indeed because there are many more things you could add to this response.

Yes, 1 Timothy 3:16. Christ died with the guilt of our sin imputed to him, and therefore it was necessary that it should be declared that the guilt of that sin was gone; that it no longer bound him. That is one of the great truths conveyed by the resurrection. Death has no power over him, because law has no claim against him, because the guilt of sin has been entirely expiated.

Christ was justified in and of himself.

Yes, Christ was 'justified (ἐδικαιώθη) by the Spirit" (1 Tim. 3:16) in his resurrection c.f. Rom. 4:25.

Also, if you're interested you might want to check out Richard B. Gaffin's Resurrection and Eschatology.

Maybe I need clarification on what y mean by Christ being justified.

Originally Posted by py3ak

Yes, 1 Timothy 3:16. Christ died with the guilt of our sin imputed to him, and therefore it was necessary that it should be declared that the guilt of that sin was gone; that it no longer bound him. That is one of the great truths conveyed by the resurrection. Death has no power over him, because law has no claim against him, because the guilt of sin has been entirely expiated.

Yes. This is the best answer.

To be justified means to be "declared" righteous, as distinct from actually "being" righteous. As such, both Christ and those who believe in Him are justified. Christ is also intrinsically righteous (sinless), while we are not. Our righteousness is alien - that is, we have Christ's righteousness imputed (credited) to us.

Originally Posted by Andrew P.C.

Maybe I need clarification on what y mean by Christ being justified.

The word means to pronounce, in a legal manner, that someone is in right standing with God, the Judge. The NAS translates it "vindicated" in 1 Tim 3:16.

Because Christ was justified - declared to be without sin and positively righteous - at His resurrection, we are also justified in Him.

If He hadn't come out of the grave our justification would have no certainty.

Christ was also adopted and sanctified. These terms in relation to our covenant Head would also need clarification.

Thanks for the responses.
Its interesting how on the surface a question can sometimes seem far off the mark until we look at it in a bit more depth. We had a bit of discussion on the question at a fellowship on Wednesday night.

Wholeheartedly agreed except this point:

Originally Posted by Peairtach

Christ was also adopted

I can see where He was justified and sanctified, but I'm having trouble seeing where He was adopted. That one makes me uneasy- especially when you say Christ rather than Jesus. Christ was always the Son of God. And I would say Jesus Christ matured as a son (learning obedience unto death on the cross, growing in wisdom and in favor with God and with men). But adopted? I don't see it....where do you see it? Please clarify, as you said was needed!

Yeah, I dunno about adoption. He's begotten. We are adopted.

Thank you.

Originally Posted by MarieP

Wholeheartedly agreed except this point:

Originally Posted by Peairtach

Christ was also adopted

I can see where He was justified and sanctified, but I'm having trouble seeing where He was adopted. That one makes me uneasy- especially when you say Christ rather than Jesus. Christ was always the Son of God. And I would say Jesus Christ matured as a son (learning obedience unto death on the cross, growing in wisdom and in favor with God and with men). But adopted? I don't see it....where do you see it? Please clarify, as you said was needed!

I'll probably have to back track on this one. I may have mis-spoken in haste. I was of course speaking about Christ's humanity rather than His deity. I was thinking about texts such as

Consequently, when Christ came into the world, he said, "Sacrifices and offerings you have not desired, but a body have you prepared for me; (Heb 10:5, ESV)

I will tell of the decree: The LORD said to me, "You are my Son; today I have begotten you. (Ps 2:7)

So also Christ did not exalt himself to be made a high priest, but was appointed by him who said to him, "You are my Son, today I have begotten you"; (Heb 5:5)

And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: (Rom 1:4)

I will set his hand on the sea and his right hand on the rivers. He shall cry to me, 'You are my Father, my God, and the Rock of my salvation.' And I will make him the firstborn, the highest of the kings of the earth. (Ps 89:27-29) cf. Rev 10

And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. (Matt 28:18)

Yes. People may say in a popular way that God "adopted" human nature, but they are just loosely saying that God became Man, and there was no point - from His conception on - at which Jesus of Nazareth was not both God and Man. It is not a proper use of the term adoption.

There is no sense in which we should speak of Christ's in His human nature being adopted. Thank you for correcting me, Marie P.

Originally Posted by py3ak

Yes, 1 Timothy 3:16. Christ died with the guilt of our sin imputed to him, and therefore it was necessary that it should be declared that the guilt of that sin was gone; that it no longer bound him. That is one of the great truths conveyed by the resurrection. Death has no power over him, because law has no claim against him, because the guilt of sin has been entirely expiated.

Ruben you have given the best and really only appropritae answer. Thank you.

If anyone needs additional textual support for the proposition that Christ was justified, it can be found in Isaiah 50:

4 The Lord GOD hath given me the tongue of the learned, that I should know how to speak a word in season to him that is weary: he wakeneth morning by morning, he wakeneth mine ear to hear as the learned.

5 The Lord GOD hath opened mine ear, and I was not rebellious, neither turned away back.

6 I gave my back to the smiters, and my cheeks to them that plucked off the hair: I hid not my face from shame and spitting.

7 For the Lord GOD will help me; therefore shall I not be confounded: therefore have I set my face like a flint, and I know that I shall not be ashamed.

8 He is near that justifieth me; who will contend with me? let us stand together: who is mine adversary? let him come near to me.

9 Behold, the Lord GOD will help me; who is he that shall condemn me? lo, they all shall wax old as a garment; the moth shall eat them up.

It is quite plain from vv.4-7 that this is Christ (if it weren't sufficiently plain on the surface of the text, tracing the NT echoes of this passage should prove convincing and heartwarming): and the speaker does not change in vv.8,9. So when Paul's usage of those verses in Romans 8:33,34 is considered, it becomes apparent that we are justified because Christ was justified.