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that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth (1 Tim 3:15)

View Poll Results: If Women Preach and Administer Sacraments, Are They Still Means of Grace or Frauds?
Both Still Means of Grace 21 46.67%
Preaching is Fraudulent, But Sacraments Are Still Means of Grace. 2 4.44%
Preaching is Still a Means of Grace, but the Sacraments are Fraudulent 0 0%
Neither Are Means of Grace 16 35.56%
Unsure 6 13.33%
Voters: 45. You may not vote on this poll

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Old 10-28-2007, 08:46 PM
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Are the Preaching and Sacramental Administration by Female Pastors Means of Grace?

Note: This is not about whether women should preach and/or administer the sacraments, as that is something to which I'm adamantly opposed.

Instead, this is a question about whether when women perform these functions whether their preaching and sacramental administration are still means of grace.

Or, are these prima facie illegitimate no matter how orthodox the teaching is or method of sacramental administration is otherwise?
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Last edited by Theoretical; 10-28-2007 at 09:21 PM.
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Old 10-28-2007, 08:52 PM
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I remember someone saying that a woman preaching is like a dog walking on his hind legs...he can do it but not well.
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Old 10-28-2007, 08:58 PM
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I went unsure. Good question, I'm still fairly new to the understanding of the means of grace.

27:3 The grace which is exhibited in or by the sacraments rightly used, is not conferred by any power in them: neither doth the efficacy of a sacrament depend upon the piety or intention of him that doth administer it: but upon the work of the Spirit, and the word of institution, which contains, together with a precept authorizing the use thereof, a promise of benefit to worthy receivers.

I'd like to see what happens with this poll...
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Old 10-28-2007, 09:01 PM
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I didn't see the poll...well, as the question is posed I'm undecided as to the Sacraments.

Will read with interest and hope to be edified.
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Old 10-28-2007, 09:04 PM
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Irregular, but God may still use as a means of grace.
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Old 10-28-2007, 09:07 PM
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Some things from the WLC to consider in this:
Quote:
Q151.By whom is the Word of God to be preached?
The Word of God is to be preached only by such as are sufficiently gifted, (k) and also duly approved and called to that office. (l)


k 1TI 3:2, 6; EPH 4:8-11; HOS 4:6; MAL 2:7; 2CO 3:6
l JER 14:15; ROM 10:15; HEB 5:4; 1CO 12:28-29; 1TI 3:10; 1TI 4:14; 1TI 5:22 [JER 14:13 but text correct: Maxey; RothB; THIRD; FOURTH; COX. Corrected by Dunlop/L&R/RP.]


Variants:
1)In “k”: EPH 4:6-11: RPc.
2)“approved, and called”: MSa; Tyler1.

Q151.How do the Sacraments become effectual means of salvation? The Sacraments become effectual means of salvation, not by any power in themselves, or any virtue derived from the piety and intention of him by whom they are administered; but only by the working of the Holy Ghost, and the blessing of Christ by whom they are instituted. (s)


s 1PE 3:21; ACT 8:13 With ACT 8:23; 1CO 3:6-7; 1CO 12:13 [Compared With etc]


Variants:
1)(1) “salvation not”: Tyler. (2) “salvation; not”: RothB; THIRD; COX. The comma is in FOURTH.
2)“piety, and”: MSb.
3)“piety or intention”: Dunlop changed and this was picked up by L&R (e.rob etc.) and passed down through the traditional text to today. RP retained the “and”.
4)“but, only”: MSa.
5)“Christ, by”: RPa; E.Rob.
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The Regulative Principle: Samuel Miller gives a succinct statement of this principle when he writes that since the Scriptures are the “only infallible rule of faith and practice, no rite or ceremony ought to have a place in the public worship of God, which is not warranted in Scripture, either by direct precept or example, or by good and sufficient inference.”

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Old 10-28-2007, 09:09 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by NaphtaliPress View Post
Some things from the WLC to consider in this:
Quote:
Q151.By whom is the Word of God to be preached?
The Word of God is to be preached only by such as are sufficiently gifted, (k) and also duly approved and called to that office. (l)


k 1TI 3:2, 6; EPH 4:8-11; HOS 4:6; MAL 2:7; 2CO 3:6
l JER 14:15; ROM 10:15; HEB 5:4; 1CO 12:28-29; 1TI 3:10; 1TI 4:14; 1TI 5:22 [JER 14:13 but text correct: Maxey; RothB; THIRD; FOURTH; COX. Corrected by Dunlop/L&R/RP.]


Variants:
1)In “k”: EPH 4:6-11: RPc.
2)“approved, and called”: MSa; Tyler1.

Q151.How do the Sacraments become effectual means of salvation? The Sacraments become effectual means of salvation, not by any power in themselves, or any virtue derived from the piety and intention of him by whom they are administered; but only by the working of the Holy Ghost, and the blessing of Christ by whom they are instituted. (s)


s 1PE 3:21; ACT 8:13 With ACT 8:23; 1CO 3:6-7; 1CO 12:13 [Compared With etc]


Variants:
1)(1) “salvation not”: Tyler. (2) “salvation; not”: RothB; THIRD; COX. The comma is in FOURTH.
2)“piety, and”: MSb.
3)“piety or intention”: Dunlop changed and this was picked up by L&R (e.rob etc.) and passed down through the traditional text to today. RP retained the “and”.
4)“but, only”: MSa.
5)“Christ, by”: RPa; E.Rob.
Preaching, no...Sacraments, yes?
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Old 10-28-2007, 09:11 PM
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Don't rush me; I said some things to consider.
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The Regulative Principle: Samuel Miller gives a succinct statement of this principle when he writes that since the Scriptures are the “only infallible rule of faith and practice, no rite or ceremony ought to have a place in the public worship of God, which is not warranted in Scripture, either by direct precept or example, or by good and sufficient inference.”

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Old 10-28-2007, 09:19 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ivan View Post
I remember someone saying that a woman preaching is like a dog walking on his hind legs...he can do it but not well.
If the Lord can speak through Balaam's Ass, and if he can speak through me, I have no doubt that he is capable of speaking through a Godly woman. This does not touch upon the issue of the ordination of women. One may consistently invite qualified women to speak in the pulpit on occasion and still oppose the ordination of women. On the other hand, my wife (with three seminary degrees), faithfully serves in the area of Christian education and family life ministry without aspiring EVER to speak from the pulpit or to be ordained.
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Old 10-28-2007, 09:19 PM
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Don't rush me; I said some things to consider.
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Old 10-28-2007, 09:38 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DMcFadden View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ivan View Post
I remember someone saying that a woman preaching is like a dog walking on his hind legs...he can do it but not well.
If the Lord can speak through Balaam's Ass, and if he can speak through me, I have no doubt that he is capable of speaking through a Godly woman. This does not touch upon the issue of the ordination of women. One may consistently invite qualified women to speak in the pulpit on occasion and still oppose the ordination of women. On the other hand, my wife (with three seminary degrees), faithfully serves in the area of Christian education and family life ministry without aspiring EVER to speak from the pulpit or to be ordained.
Preaching and speaking...apples and....well, you know.
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Old 10-28-2007, 09:43 PM
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Although I'm not completely sure, I put both are still means of grace. "Unsure" is always uninteresting in poll results.
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Old 10-28-2007, 09:45 PM
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Quote:
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Although I'm not completely sure, I put both are still means of grace. "Unsure" is always uninteresting in poll results.
Believe it or not, I'm leaning that way.
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Old 10-28-2007, 10:45 PM
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Quote:
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Irregular, but God may still use as a means of grace.
Hm... certainly God can use an unlawful, and even evil, act to bless people. I should
think that something like this - unlawful, and a perversion of God's word - could never
be expected (except as God sometimes providentially uses things that are contrary to
His law in order to accomplish His purposes) to serve as a means of grace in the way
we use the term.
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Old 10-28-2007, 10:57 PM
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Luke 9:49 And John answered and said, Master, we saw one casting out devils in thy name; and we forbad him, because he followeth not with us. 50 And Jesus said unto him, Forbid him not: for he that is not against us is for us.
I've thought about this (and anyone unordained or improperly ordained) before and this passage came to mind.
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Old 10-28-2007, 11:28 PM
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I haven't voted yet, but I'm leaning toward "Neither".

I have a question first. Would a church with a female pastor (elder) be considered a true church? After all, it would be clearly violating Scripture (though I might stop just short of calling it a synagogue of Satan). Right?
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Old 10-29-2007, 01:10 AM
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Didn't the early church decide (based on Scripture) that the efficacy of the sacraments is not dependent on the administrator of same? I don't women as pastors or preachers is biblical, but I don't think that if a woman administered the preached or administered the sacraments, they would be inefficacious merely for that reason. Paul, after all, was glad when the gospel was preached even from dishonest motives.
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Old 10-29-2007, 01:34 AM
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Quote:
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I remember someone saying that a woman preaching is like a dog walking on his hind legs...he can do it but not well.
The "someone" was Dr. Samuel Johnson (1709-1784), the great English lexicographer and author, and the exact quote, as found in James Boswell's (1740-1795) The Life of Samuel Johnson, LL.D (1791) runs thusly:

Next day, Sunday, July 31 [1763], I told him I had been, that morning, at a meeting of the people called Quakers, where I had heard a woman preach. JOHNSON: "Sir, a woman's preaching is like a dog's walking on his hinder legs. It is not done well; but you are surprized to find it done at all."
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Old 10-29-2007, 02:22 AM
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Here's my fear. Somebody gets baptized in a mainline denomination where most of the ministers are female. Decades later, he converts. When he goes to his local session, he can't figure out the gender of the minister who baptized him. What to do?
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