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Revelation & Eschatology Discussion of the book of Revelation, Millennial Views, and Last Things
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Old 04-23-2008, 05:27 PM
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Do Some Preterists Believe Any Of The Kingdom Parables Have Already Been Fulfilled?

Can a preterist apply the Kingdom Parables of Matt 13 to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD and still be considered orthodox?
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Old 04-23-2008, 11:56 PM
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Old 04-24-2008, 07:16 AM
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Partial Preterists believe that the Kingdom of God is still growing and expanding.
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Old 04-24-2008, 09:17 AM
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Partial Preterists believe that the Kingdom of God is still growing and expanding.
I guess, in a way, everyone who is not a 'consistent' millenialist would agree. Perhaps we could say that particular parable is 'being' fulfilled.

But preterists do not believe that the tares for example were cast into the fire in 70 AD do they?
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Old 04-24-2008, 10:13 AM
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Partial Preterists believe that the Kingdom of God is still growing and expanding.
I guess, in a way, everyone who is not a 'consistent' millenialist would agree. Perhaps we could say that particular parable is 'being' fulfilled.

But preterists do not believe that the tares for example were cast into the fire in 70 AD do they?
KMK,

When do full preterists say the kingdom came? Most I have ever read claim that it is AD 70, so would these parables not be about the Kingdom, "The Kingdom of Heaven is like..."

The partial preterist, taking a more "idealist" approach to the text can see it as applying to AD 70, although having current relevance to our situation and at the end, when he delivers over to God the Father after having destroyed every rule, authority, & power.

Given the hyper-preterists literalism at points, I am hard-pressed to see the complete/total fulfillment of "The Son of Man will send his angels, and they will gather out of his kingdom all causes of sin and all law-breakers, and throw them into the fiery furnace. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth." After all, if hyper-preterism is true, wouldn't the lie of futurism have caused sin and law-breakers? Why wasn't it plucked out for well more than 2000 yrs, b/c despite their claims they are a very small group.

There was definitely a sense in which the Kingdom came in AD 70 (Mt 21.33+), the Jews were thrown out and there was a weeping and gnashing of their teeth, and the Church shined like the stars in the heaven. There is a sense in which this occurs every Sunday, the Day of the Lord, and there will be the final cosmic, eschatological fulfillment of this as well. "Eschatological"/apocalyptic language is used consistently throughout Scripture to point to similar events, which, I believe, is a participation in the final day.
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Old 04-24-2008, 12:02 PM
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Partial Preterists believe that the Kingdom of God is still growing and expanding.
I guess, in a way, everyone who is not a 'consistent' millenialist would agree. Perhaps we could say that particular parable is 'being' fulfilled.

But preterists do not believe that the tares for example were cast into the fire in 70 AD do they?
KMK,

When do full preterists say the kingdom came? Most I have ever read claim that it is AD 70, so would these parables not be about the Kingdom, "The Kingdom of Heaven is like..."

The partial preterist, taking a more "idealist" approach to the text can see it as applying to AD 70, although having current relevance to our situation and at the end, when he delivers over to God the Father after having destroyed every rule, authority, & power.

Given the hyper-preterists literalism at points, I am hard-pressed to see the complete/total fulfillment of "The Son of Man will send his angels, and they will gather out of his kingdom all causes of sin and all law-breakers, and throw them into the fiery furnace. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth." After all, if hyper-preterism is true, wouldn't the lie of futurism have caused sin and law-breakers? Why wasn't it plucked out for well more than 2000 yrs, b/c despite their claims they are a very small group.

There was definitely a sense in which the Kingdom came in AD 70 (Mt 21.33+), the Jews were thrown out and there was a weeping and gnashing of their teeth, and the Church shined like the stars in the heaven. There is a sense in which this occurs every Sunday, the Day of the Lord, and there will be the final cosmic, eschatological fulfillment of this as well. "Eschatological"/apocalyptic language is used consistently throughout Scripture to point to similar events, which, I believe, is a participation in the final day.
Perhaps I should reword the question: Do preterists believe the kingdom was 'consummated' in 70 AD?
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Old 04-24-2008, 12:05 PM
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Old 04-24-2008, 02:15 PM
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Perhaps I should reword the question: Do preterists believe the kingdom was 'consummated' in 70 AD?
Aside from hyper-preterists, I know no preterist that believes the kingdom was consummated in AD 70. The Kingdom is consummated with the resurrection of the body, the delivering of the Kingdom to God the Father, and the new heavens and new earth.
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Old 04-24-2008, 02:22 PM
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Perhaps I should reword the question: Do preterists believe the kingdom was 'consummated' in 70 AD?
The Kingdom is consummated with the resurrection of the body, the delivering of the Kingdom to God the Father, and the new heavens and new earth.
However, the hyper-preterist would agree.
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Old 04-24-2008, 02:24 PM
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Old 04-24-2008, 11:12 PM
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Perhaps I should reword the question: Do preterists believe the kingdom was 'consummated' in 70 AD?
The Kingdom is consummated with the resurrection of the body, the delivering of the Kingdom to God the Father, and the new heavens and new earth.
However, the hyper-preterist would agree.
Hence my qualification, "aside from hyper-preterist", so:

1. When you say "preterist" I am taking it as an orthodox preterist, so the response was in that direction for preterist.

2. The hyper-preterist cannot have any historical understanding of those words, including the time that the Bible was written, especially resurrection. Grab the Bible and read the end of Luke and then read through Acts and see how resurrection is used for Jesus - he is touched, seen, and felt. The whole use of resurrection is the physical body of Jesus coming out from "the dead", which, again, was touched, seen, and then ascended, and it is not simply a "resurrection from hades/sheol", although it included that, and it is not a "covenantal resurrection" or "resurrection of old covenant Israel".

3. As you point out here, the "difficulty" with hyper-preterism is that it is a mirror of Christianity & a Christian heresy, they "believe" those things. It is a little bit like when I was a kid and championship wrestling had Doink the clown. In order to keep the schtick interesting they brought out Dink the Clown, who was a mirror of Doink, although he was a midget. They even went through a routine once where they met in the center of the ring and mirrored each other's moves. So it is with hyper-preterism. Hyper-preterism is not real Christianity, but merely mirrors it and mimics every move, although distorted and redefined. Is there a millennium? A resurrection? A "second coming"? New Heavens and New Earth? A Consummation? Yes to all of those, but where do they get their understanding and definitions? Is Dink like Doink? O.k., maybe that is an awful analogy, but...

This is where the "difficulty" comes in. They do not get their definition and understanding from the context that the Scriptures were written or even the Scriptures for that matter. Despite claims to taking the Bible in its historical context, their rejection of how words are used in the 1st century and in Scripture demonstrates that they do not. IF they can define "resurrection" any way they want, completely devoid of historical context, and just impute that definition into the text, then they can kind of make their system work, at least at points. Overall, however, like any false system, the errors begin to arise as sound exegesis is performed.

Remember, as they oft claim, "It is not creeds, but properly exegeted Scripture that we must follow." This would include the creed that "Jesus returned in AD 70". It is only because I think properly exegeted Scripture, especially as it pertains to the teachings of Jesus and the Apostles on the resurrection and the Apostles on the "second coming", that I am a "futurist" and agree with the history of the Church.
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Old 04-25-2008, 12:29 AM
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Old 04-25-2008, 12:33 AM
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Old 04-25-2008, 01:05 PM
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The Kingdom is consummated with the resurrection of the body, the delivering of the Kingdom to God the Father, and the new heavens and new earth.
However, the hyper-preterist would agree.
Hence my qualification, "aside from hyper-preterist", so:

1. When you say "preterist" I am taking it as an orthodox preterist, so the response was in that direction for preterist.

2. The hyper-preterist cannot have any historical understanding of those words, including the time that the Bible was written, especially resurrection. Grab the Bible and read the end of Luke and then read through Acts and see how resurrection is used for Jesus - he is touched, seen, and felt. The whole use of resurrection is the physical body of Jesus coming out from "the dead", which, again, was touched, seen, and then ascended, and it is not simply a "resurrection from hades/sheol", although it included that, and it is not a "covenantal resurrection" or "resurrection of old covenant Israel".

3. As you point out here, the "difficulty" with hyper-preterism is that it is a mirror of Christianity & a Christian heresy, they "believe" those things. It is a little bit like when I was a kid and championship wrestling had Doink the clown. In order to keep the schtick interesting they brought out Dink the Clown, who was a mirror of Doink, although he was a midget. They even went through a routine once where they met in the center of the ring and mirrored each other's moves. So it is with hyper-preterism. Hyper-preterism is not real Christianity, but merely mirrors it and mimics every move, although distorted and redefined. Is there a millennium? A resurrection? A "second coming"? New Heavens and New Earth? A Consummation? Yes to all of those, but where do they get their understanding and definitions? Is Dink like Doink? O.k., maybe that is an awful analogy, but...

This is where the "difficulty" comes in. They do not get their definition and understanding from the context that the Scriptures were written or even the Scriptures for that matter. Despite claims to taking the Bible in its historical context, their rejection of how words are used in the 1st century and in Scripture demonstrates that they do not. IF they can define "resurrection" any way they want, completely devoid of historical context, and just impute that definition into the text, then they can kind of make their system work, at least at points. Overall, however, like any false system, the errors begin to arise as sound exegesis is performed.

Remember, as they oft claim, "It is not creeds, but properly exegeted Scripture that we must follow." This would include the creed that "Jesus returned in AD 70". It is only because I think properly exegeted Scripture, especially as it pertains to the teachings of Jesus and the Apostles on the resurrection and the Apostles on the "second coming", that I am a "futurist" and agree with the history of the Church.
You are saying that hyper-preterism is like Bizarro!

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Old 04-25-2008, 02:22 PM
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As a preterist, certainly the kingdom came with the ministry of Jesus. Those Parables are fulfilled in Christ and have reference to the growth of the kingdom. They speak about the blindness and the unbelief of the people in Jesus day. His Parables call people to discipleship. There is nothing unorthodox about saying that the Parables are fulfilled or that anything else is fulfilled. What becomes unorthodox is the teaching of some preterists who deny the resurrection and the future Parousia of the Lord, where He will judge the living and the dead. R.C Sproul, Sr. Ken Gentry, Gary DeMar, Gary North, R.J. Rushdooney, and others are and were (in the case of Rush) preterists but solidly orthodox.
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Old 04-25-2008, 11:31 PM
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BTW, a friend who shall remain nameless emailed me this:

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If you are wrestling with the issue of hyper-preterism, I understand. A number of years ago I really struggled through the issue. Short of the long, I was reading bad eschatological books, predicting an "imminent return" and then a friend gave me Chilton's "Paradise Restored". I spent the past two years looking at those verses as dealing with the "second coming" and all of a sudden a guy comes along and says, "Nope. They were fulfilled in the destruction of Jerusalem." Not only was he saying that, but his exegesis seemed more than convincing. Anyway, I remember think, then what's left?

Well, after wrestling with the issue for several years, here is a basic outline of why I cannot buy the issue:

1. Adam/Christ typology - by a man came death, so by a man comes the resurrection of the dead. The effects of the fall, which are physical & not just spiritual will be overturned in Christ.

2. Resurrection - resurrection meant empty tomb. Read Lk. 23.26+ and compare w/ 1 Co. 15.3+. It fits the apostolic formula and note the angels question in Lk 24.5: "Why do you seek the living among the dead?" Where were they looking? Sheol? Old Covenant Israel? Hades? No, they were looking at bodies, so look at 1 Co. 15.12, "Now, if Christ is proclaimed as raised from the dead, how can some of you say there is no resurrection of the dead?" Max King and others try to redefine dead to be "old covenant Israel" and the objectors to be pro-Pauline Gentiles, but, seriously, do you really get that from 1 Co. 15 given the historical context of 'resurrection', 'the dead', & the 'yet, whether it was I or they, so we preached and so you believed'? Max & them make up the history to get their system to fit. On the other hand, Ed Stevens, et. al., seek to be more orthodox and understand this to be an individual resurrection from Hades, but were the Corinthians really believing that there was no resurrection from Hades? Paul's argument doesn't make sense if this is what they believed - "then even those that have fallen asleep in Christ have perished". Also note, sheol/hades or more complex than they make it.

3. The ascensions - Acts 1.8, which is the follow-up to Luke, I believe is the first real teaching on the "second coming" - heaven rec'd him and would until the times of refreshing (Acts 3).

4. Realizing that parousia was not a technical term.

5. The millennium - I take that to be a "time text" as well. Yes, you can shoehorn it into a 40 yr. period, but it doesn't really work, esp. if you follow the chronology of Rev. 19 and 20, the taking of thrones, etc.

6. New Heavens and New Earth - tied into resurrection and the Adam/Christ typology, but, as we sing at Christmas, "far as the curse is found".

7. "Present evil age" - it is still present.

8. More ad hom/subjective - I went to a conference and meeting these people in person gave me the willies. It really was creepy. I think some were influenced by the no longer existing satan. Many of them are just arrogant and they are constantly reinventing the wheel. They are now into "covenantal creation", which suggests Adam wasn't the first man & that Gen. 1-3 isn't about the creation of the world. As you point it, it is bizarro.

In sum, preterists have a point. There are many texts that deal with the destruction of Jerusalem & what many take to be "second coming" texts are pointing to that event, but that doesn't negate properly exegeted Scripture.
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Old 05-12-2008, 05:29 PM
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Can a preterist apply the Kingdom Parables of Matt 13 to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD and still be considered orthodox?
The kingdom parables, specifically that of "the wheat and tares", is fulfilled in 70 ad because that is the exegetical conclusion of the passage.
Perhaps a "preterist" can apply it to 70 ad, but the real question is "what saith the scriptures".

Quote:
24 He put another parable before them, saying, “The kingdom of heaven may be compared to a man who sowed good seed in his field, 25 but while his men were sleeping, his enemy came and sowed weeds [3] among the wheat and went away. 26 So when the plants came up and bore grain, then the weeds appeared also. 27 And the servants [4] of the master of the house came and said to him, ‘Master, did you not sow good seed in your field? How then does it have weeds?’ 28 He said to them, ‘An enemy has done this.’ So the servants said to him, ‘Then do you want us to go and gather them?’ 29 But he said, ‘No, lest in gathering the weeds you root up the wheat along with them. 30 Let both grow together until the harvest, and at harvest time I will tell the reapers, Gather the weeds first and bind them in bundles to be burned, but gather the wheat into my barn.’”
Is this scripture not easily fulfilled with the judgement in 70ad?
It is not preterist dogma...but simple exegesis.

And how on earth would someone who comes to a sober analysis of this passage as refering to the judgement of Jerusalem be considered unorthodox.

What if Jesus was speaking of the "last" judgement to be poured out upon that generation in this parable, would Jesus be unorthodox?

Luckily for us, Jesus explains this parable a few verses later.

The 70 ad fulfillement is the most consistent interpretation in regards to the rest of the kingdom parables, especially as they build up to the Olivet discourse.
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Old 05-12-2008, 06:56 PM
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Of course making the statement I do above without any support or at least a couple exegetical comments on the text is probably quite rude.

Quote:
The Parable of the Weeds Explained
36 Then he left the crowds and went into the house. And his disciples came to him, saying, “Explain to us the parable of the weeds of the field.” 37 He answered, “The one who sows the good seed is the Son of Man. 38 The field is the world, and the good seed is the sons of the kingdom. The weeds are the sons of the evil one, 39 and the enemy who sowed them is the devil. The harvest is the close of the age, and the reapers are angels. 40 Just as the weeds are gathered and burned with fire, so will it be at the close of the age. 41 The Son of Man will send his angels, and they will gather out of his kingdom all causes of sin and all law-breakers, 42 and throw them into the fiery furnace. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth. 43 Then the righteous will shine like the sun in the kingdom of their Father. He who has ears, let him hear.
The good seeds are the sons of the Kingdom, the elect in Israel, e.g., the 11 disciples and all who come to faith in the king of the kingdom, Jesus Christ, before judgement day (70ad).
The tares are the sons of the devil....the non-elect in Israel....Remember, Jesus told some pharisee's that they were "the children of the devil" those who committed blasaphemy against the Holy Spirit. The tares are such as these.

The harvest is the end of the age (of THAT age).The times of the end of