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NT Epistles Discussion of texts from Romans - Jude
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Old 03-21-2008, 02:36 AM
CalvinandHodges's Avatar
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Question What is your take on 1 Cor 15:29?

Hay:

1 Cor. 15:29 and being "Baptized for the dead"?

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Old 03-21-2008, 04:06 AM
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I'm interested in these responses as well. It's funny because I'm teaching on 1 Cor 15 and just read the Hendricksen commentary yesterday. His answer? He's not sure:

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29. Otherwise what shall they do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized in their behalf?
Paul now addresses the practice of those people who are being baptized for the dead. He confronts only those few people who observed this practice, for he uses the pronoun they and not you in this text. We assume that Paul vigorously denounced such actions; there is no evidence that churches in the apostolic era ever practiced baptism for the dead.
In the third century, Tertullian comments on this verse and remarks that Paul disapproved of the practice of being baptized for the dead. One hundred years later, Chrysostom described a bizarre procedure of some Marcionite dissenters who baptized a person who had suddenly died without the sign of baptism. He, too, voiced his disapproval and even declared the Marcionite practice superstitious.78
Throughout the centuries, explanations for verse 29 have been numerous and varied; many of them concern the phrases baptized for the dead and baptized in their behalf. In spite of all the exegesis, a satisfactory solution appears to be elusive. I am not presenting a résumé of every possible suggestion; instead I mention several attempts to clarify the text.
1. Living members of the church were baptized vicariously for those believers who had died but had not received the sacrament of baptism. But what is the point of this practice, when believers at death are immediately glorified in the presence of the Lord? What will they gain by being baptized by proxy?
2. The Greek preposition hyper (for) in the phrase for the dead is interpreted to mean “above the graves of the dead.” This explanation and the one that takes the preposition hyper to signify “for the sake of the dead” both refer to representative baptisms. However, the practice of “vicarious baptism requires us to think of the Corinthians’ faith in baptism as magical at worse [sic] or mechanical at best.”79
3. Unbelievers sympathetic toward Christians who had died requested baptism on behalf of the dead and then expected to be in their company at the resurrection.80 The question remains whether these baptismal candidates expressed faith in Jesus Christ.
4. The phrase baptized for the dead echoes a similar phrase, “praying for the dead” (see II Macc. 12:40).81 But the teachings of Christ and the apostles never include uttering prayers for the dead. The echo aside, these two phrases have nothing in common.
5. The literal interpretation of the word baptized is replaced by a metaphor. For example, Jesus asked James and John if they could drink the cup that he had to drink or be baptized with the baptism that he would be baptized with (Mark 10:38; see also Luke 12:50). Jesus used the concept baptism as a metaphor for his imminent suffering and death on the cross. Is Paul by analogy conveying a symbolic meaning of the text so that the expression the dead signifies death? The text then should read “being baptized by experiencing death.” Without disparaging the significance of a martyr’s death, I think that this interpretation veers away from the message of the text.
6. Catechumens who were at the point of death asked for baptism. They had already accepted Christ in faith but because of disease or accident felt the nearness of death and requested baptism.82 The problem is that this interpretation of the Greek preposition hyper is contrived.
7. As a last resort, conjectures are suggested. One hypothesis is to emend the last part of verse 29 to read “they are baptized in our behalf” instead of “they are baptized in their behalf” (italics added). The use of the first person plural creates a parallel between verse 29 and verse 30, “Why are we also in danger every hour?”
Another hypothesis is to find a Greek verb similar to that of to do: “what shall they do.” The proposal is made that the Greek verb to believe (“what shall they believe”) was the original text and eventually was changed to the verb to do.83
Conjectures, however, are highly subjective and should be regarded as nothing more than suggestions. Indeed, we would be better off to admit that the text is unclear and noncommunicative than to accept a superficial hypothesis.
Let us now return to the text itself and examine its individual sentences and clauses.
a. “Otherwise what shall they do who are baptized for the dead?” The word otherwise calls attention to the preceding segment (vv. 20–28) that speaks about the implications of the resurrection of Christ for the believers. If this resurrection were not so, Paul argues, what comments do those people have who are being baptized for the dead? Their willingness to be baptized is utterly pointless if the dead do not rise from their graves. The present tense of the Greek participle being baptized indicates that the baptismal candidates are active participants. They are baptized for a group called “the dead.” The general rule is that without the definite article in Greek, the expression the dead signifies the dead in general. With the definite article, the term means Christians who have died.84 Conclusively, Paul thinks of those believers who await the day of resurrection.
b. “If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized in their behalf?” The first clause lists a condition that is contrary to fact, for in the preceding verses Paul has proved the veracity of the resurrection. In other words, he tells his readers that some of them may deny the resurrection, yet God’s people will rise from the dead. For the sake of argument, Paul states this fact as untrue. He wants the deniers to answer the question why people are baptized for the dead. The two sentences of this verse display parallelism to stress the issue that the practice of being baptized for the dead is pointless when the dead do not rise from the grave.
What is the meaning of this verse? Even though many scholars suggest a literal interpretation as a vicarious baptism, the objections are formidable. In all humility I confess that the sense of this text escapes me; verse 29 remains a mystery.
78 Chrysostom Homily 40.1 on 1 Corinthians; Tertullian Against Marcion 5.10, and Resurrection of the Flesh 48.

79 Martin, The Spirit and the Congregation, p. 119. Jerome Murphy-O’Connor, however, suggests the phrase those baptized for the dead to be a Corinthian taunt directed at Paul’s apostolic suffering (vv. 31–32). See his “‘Baptized for the Dead’ (1 Cor., XV, 29) A Corinthian Slogan?” RB 88 (1981): 532–43.

80 Robertson and Plummer, First Corinthians, pp. 359–60; Maria Raeder, “Vikariatstaufe in I Kor. 15:29?” ZNW 46 (1956): 258–60; Jeremias, “Flesh and Blood,” pp. 155–56; J. K. Howard, “Baptism for the Dead: A Study of 1 Corinthians 15:29, ” EvQ 37 (1965): 137–41.

81 Consult the literature provided by Ethelbert Stauffer, New Testament Theology (London: SCM, 1955), p. 299 n. 544.

82 Calvin, I Corinthians, p. 330.

83 Jean Héring writes, “We should like to think that the Apostle dictated ‘pisteuousin’ = ‘what do they believe who are baptized for the dead’, a verb which might easily have been corrupted to ‘poiēsousin’.” See The First Epistle of Saint Paul to the Corinthians, trans. A. W. Heathcote and P. J. Allcock (London: Epworth, 1962), p. 171.

84 Jeremias, “Flesh and Blood,” pp. 155–56.

Kistemaker, S. J., & Hendriksen, W. (1953-2001). Vol. 18: New Testament commentary : Exposition of the First Epistle to the Corinthians. Accompanying biblical text is author's translation. New Testament Commentary (558). Grand Rapids: Baker Book House.

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Old 03-21-2008, 04:57 AM
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This is probably just showing how ill-read I am in my commentaries, but I always thought Paul was using the Corinthian practice of baptizing the dead as evidence that the Corinthians already had a conviction in a future resurrection, though their related practices were false.
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Old 03-21-2008, 05:06 AM
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That's sort of how I take it too Dan. I don't think he's necessarily teaching that the baptism for the dead is necessarily appropriate but mentions it (it seems) to say: "Well, if you guys don't believe in the resurrection then why would you be baptizing for the dead...."
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Old 04-06-2008, 04:43 PM
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I preached through 1Cor. 15 very recently. I think this about the most difficult verse in the epistle to understand. After a good deal of study, I came away with the feeling that he may be referring to people who were saved on account of the testimonies of Christians who had since died - perhaps especially because they faced death with confidence and courage and hope. In other words, the testimony of these Christians, no longer living, was instrumental in the conversion of those who were being "baptized" here. The argument, then, would be that the hope with which these Christians faced death would be an empty hope, were there no resurrection of the dead, and, accordingly, those who were converted/baptized because of that hope were miserable deluded. They were going to be ready to give up there earthly lives for no good reason.
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Old 04-06-2008, 05:00 PM
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Since this is only mentioned once in scripture, and nowhere else put forth as normative, I would lean more towards Dan's explanation. Paul had proven to be an opportunist when he preached the gospel, and the resurrection is certainly an inherent part of the gospel. He did the same in Athens:

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Acts 17:22-23 22 So Paul stood in the midst of the Areopagus and said, "Men of Athens, I observe that you are very religious in all respects. 23 "For while I was passing through and examining the objects of your worship, I also found an altar with this inscription, 'TO AN UNKNOWN GOD.' Therefore what you worship in ignorance, this I proclaim to you.
Paul wasn't defending altars to unknown gods, but he did take advantage of the opportunity that presented itself to proclaim Christ.
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Old 04-06-2008, 06:36 PM
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R.S. Candlish gives quite a discussion of this in Life in a Risen Saviour. This was the answer I inclined to until I read a small book on hermeneutics written in Spanish by Ernesto Trenchard: alas! I neglected to write it down, have quite forgotten it, and no longer own the book.

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The first and chief puzzle is in the twenty-ninth verse : "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?" What is meant by being baptized for the dead?
The idea naturally suggested by the original phrase is that of a vicarious baptism; the baptism of one person in the place, or room, or stead of another.
It is known to have been at one time a practice in the church, if a convert to Christianity happened to die unbaptized, that a Christian brother might volunteer to be his substitute and representative, and to have the baptismal rite administered to him, on behalf of his deceased friend. This was held to make up for the loss which the dead man might sustain in consequence of his not having been himself baptized, while yet alive. It was held to be equivalent to his having been in his own person made partaker of the initiatory sacrament of the church. It was a posthumous baptism by proxy.
Some interpreters of high name, including one of the most recent and most eminent, have been inclined to understand Paul as alluding to that practice; and they have admired his allusion to it as an instance of the tenderness with which he dealt with a usage, to say the least of it, of dangerous tendency, as well as of the skill with which he turned it to argumentative or oratorical account in pleading with those among whom it may have partially prevailed. Out of your own mouth I argue with you. There are some of you who have received baptism as personating and, to use a familiar phrase, standing in the shoes of the dead. For what good end did you do so, even on your own theory of what such a procedure might mean and might effect, if the dead rise not and survive not at all?
There are grave and obvious objections to this view. It shocks one's sense of propriety. It seems unlike the apostle's usual manliness and genuine truthfulness, that he should deal thus with so fond and frivolous, not to say foul and fatal a superstition; employing it merely to point a rhetorical appeal, without one word of warning or denunciation against it. Besides, there is not a trace of the usage in question, till many years after apostolic times, and then only within a very narrow section of the church, suspected with good reason, on other grounds, of unsoundness in the faith. And it is far more probable, that in a subsequent age of declining spirituality and increasing corruption, the practice originated among a few heretics, misinterpreting perhaps the apostle's language, than either that it existed at all in Paul's day, or that if it did, he could treat it so lightly. "The practice was never adopted except by some obscure sects of gnostics, who seem to have founded their custom on this very passage."* The text, misconstrued, may have suggested the usage, not the usage the text.
Of the other meanings that have been put upon the phrase, none are entirely satisfactory and unobjectionable.
That which, perhaps, most commends itself,—at least to the fancy and the heart,—is the one which, retaining still the general idea of substitution, gives it a different turn, making it not a vicarious representation of the persons of the dead, but, as it were, a vicarious occupancy of the position which till death they filled.
The vacancies left in the ranks of the Christian army, when saints and martyrs fall asleep in Jesus, are supplied by fresh recruits, eager to be baptized as they were, and pledged by baptism to fall as they fell, at the post of duty and danger. It is a touching sight which the Lord's baptized host presents to view, especially in troublous times. Column after column advancing to the breach, as on a forlorn hope, in the storming of Satan's citadel of worldly pomp and power, is mowed down by the ruthless fire of persecution. But ever as one line disappears, a new band of volunteers starts up, candidates for the seal of baptism, even though in their case, as in the case of their predecessors in the deadly strife, the seal of baptism is to be the earnest of the bloody crown of martyrdom. It would seem surely to be somewhere in the line of this thought that the key to the perplexing phrase, " baptized for the dead," is to be found. It implies that somehow baptism formed a link of connection between the baptized living and the baptized dead—committing the living to the fortune or fate, whatever it may be, that has already overtaken the dead.
Your baptism constitutes you the substitutes and successors on earth of the holy men and women who have gone before you. It binds you to do their work in life; and to share their destiny in death. But what destiny is that, if the dead rise not at all? What means, in that case, your being baptized for the dead?


*Conybeare and Howson, Life and Epistles of St. Paul, vol. ii. p. 59.
Ed. 1853.
From Google Books.
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Old 04-06-2008, 08:59 PM
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I faintly remember contributing to another thread on this subject. At any rate, I take it that "baptism" is used figuratively, as when our Lord speaks of his death as a baptism. "Baptism for the dead" amounts to willingly giving up on this life to pass into the state of the dead. This fits in well with what follows regarding the apostle risking his life. Both would be in vain if the dead are not raised.
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Old 04-06-2008, 09:07 PM
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The best argument I have heard for it was by John Robbins on a lecture about logic. He stated that it was an ad hominem argument, it went like this; if you are baptizing for the dead you must believe in the resurrection otherwise what would be the point in baptizing them? He was not arguing whether or not baptism for the dead was plausible, (0r some practice we no longer have any evidence for) but since they did believe in it he used this against them as a way to prove the resurrection. He used their argument against them.

I hope this is clear. If you understand the principle of an ad hominem argument apply it to this.
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Jeremiah 23:16,17, "Thus says the Lord of hosts: “Do not listen to the words of the prophets who prophesy to you, filling you with vain hopes. They speak visions of their own minds, not from the mouth of the Lord. 17They say continually to those who despise the word of the Lord, ‘It shall be well with you’; and to everyone who stubbornly follows his own heart, they say, ‘No disaster shall come upon you."
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