Quote:
Originally Posted by Javilo  The NKJV Romans 4:4
"Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as GRACE but as debt."
The KJV also uses grace. But I was wondering why none of the modern
translations use grace in this verse. Now, I am no KJV onlyist but it does
seem like grace is a stronger translation here. Is it just the usual
manuscript differences? |
Joe,
Paul is making the point that one who works (an employee) does not receive his wage because it is a favor being granted to him. Because Paul is using this type of example,
favor is not necessarily a bad rendering of
χάρις. Further in the chapter Paul writes:
Quote:
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Romans 4:16 16 For this reason it is by faith, that it might be in accordance with grace, in order that the promise may be certain to all the descendants, not only to those who are of the Law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all,
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Same word,
χάρις, is used. In this context it is clearly talking about the grace granted by God, not a favorable act committed by man.
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