
Originally Posted by
Rogerant

Originally Posted by
cih1355
Romans 1:16 says, "For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek." What does, "for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes" mean? Is this verse saying that the gospel is proclaimed to Jews first before it is proclaimed to Greeks?
It means that it was to be preached to the Jews first during that dispensation or economy. They were to recieve the gospel first before the last days of the old covenant. The last days of the old covenant closed at the destruction of the temple. The Gospel was to be preached to the Jews first to bring in the remnant of God's elect from the Jewish nation.
Now there is no national distinction between Jew and Greek. The Gospel goes out to all without distinction of nationality.
Just to add, Jesus Himself makes this clear in Matthew 10 in the discourse on missions, and Paul always preached in the synagogues first before taking the Gospel to the Gentiles. This is a predictable pattern in Acts.
Mason
Member, Redeemer Presbyterian Church (PCA)
New York, NY
"Come now, and let us reason together," says the Lord, "Though your sins are like scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they are red like crimson, they shall be as wool." - Isaiah 1:18
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