I was at a bible study last night and we were reading this passage. First off I do acknowledge that Christians still sin while we are still on this planet " 1john 1:8-10"

My question was the person leading was reading out of the NASB in which his v.4Everyone who practices sin also practices lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness.

My NKJV says " Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness and sin is lawlesness."

and because Im clueless in greek i asked if the word commit in greek was the same as practice. He said yes, however when i got home and looked it up on my logos it wasnt. Also in the NKJV the word practice does appear in v.7 so my question is why in the NKJV would it show up in v. 7 but not in v.4 like it does in the NASB?

Not sure if i put this in the right thread. anything would help.

God bless.

1Jn 3:4 Πᾶς ὁ ποιῶν τὴν ἁμαρτίαν καὶ τὴν ἀνομίαν ποιεῖ, καὶ ἡ ἁμαρτία ἐστὶν ἡ ἀνομία.

In a hyper-literal rendering: Every one practicing the sin even the lawlessness he is practicing, and the sin it is the lawlessness.

This verse has no well-attested variants.

The verb poieo, means (basically) to make or to do. So, the glosses "practice" or "commit" sound much more correct in our English idom. "Doing sin" might work, however, the tense and voice of the verb forms are present-active, and "doing" may not convey in this place the habitual sense of the Gk., as well as "practicing" does, which term sounds more like a habit.