Thread: Praying for Trespasses or Debts?

I have been trying to get at the heart of the question of why Presbyterians so doggedly pray "forgive us our debts" when everyone else prays "forgive us our trespasses."

I've come acrosss some theories on the subject (two of which sound like sanctified urban legends to me):

1. It was pure Scottish stubborness. The English prayed "forgive us our trespasses" so praying "debts" was just a way to stick it to the English.

2. The Scotts were often debtors to the English (who were the landholders), so their preference reflected their situation.

3. The Scotts in their uber-animosity towards both the English (seems a common thread) and Catholics, deliberately chose not to use words found in the Book of Common prayer, which they deemed popish.

Anyone know the actual skinny on the subject?

We just quote from Matthew 6 in the KJV, which has debt and debtors.

Don't know but did you want us to pray for the answer since you put your thread under the prayer forum?

-----Added 9/16/2009 at 05:29:00 EST-----

Well, I meditated on this and was led to tell you that the Scots had it right bc of their superior knowledge in most everything......I'm Scottish/Irish....I know these things.

@ Josh: Yes, I know, I'm more interested in the "why" of it all.

@ Sarah: You crack me up on a regular basis!

Kevin,

I'm sorry, but I don't understand. Wouldn't they have just been quoting the KJV or the Geneva Bible? Forgive my density, here.

"debts" comes from Wycliffe's translation; "trespasses" from Tyndale's. The Book of Common Prayer used "trespasses", and the King James used "debts".

Debts or Trespasses?

Renamed for better searching and moved to more appropriate forum.

Re: new thread title

Maybe "Praying About Trespasses or Debts?" would be better.
Having enough of both on my own, I pray neither for trespasses or debts!

When I was a wee lad I learned it with debts, I first heard trespasses when I was a teenager

Perhaps I too am dense regarding the subject, but why would it be significant to use one word as opposed to the other? Is there a theological impact that I am failing to see?

I don't think this is a uniquely Presbyterian practice. As a Baptist, I know "debts" is the word employed when Baptist recite the Lord's Prayer (and sometimes hang it on the sanctuary wall). Why? That's how the King James says it. I don't think its any more complicated than that.

I too would imagine it's probably from the KJV. No need to automatically blame the oppressed Scots.

I always thought it was determined by the Bible translation predominant in the particular church. I didn't know there was a denominational distinction.

Originally Posted by Puritan Sailor

I always thought it was determined by the Bible translation predominant in the particular church. I didn't know there was a denominational distinction.

Yes, there is a clear denominational distinction between Anglicans/Piskies (trespasses) and Presbys (Debts).

And the urban legend is that it was caused by the English gentry being concerned about their land, and one of the greatest sins being trespassing and poaching, and the Scots being tight with their money and being considering failure to repay a debt to be a great sin.

I think the actual answer is as stated above - choice of verses and translations.

Originally Posted by C. M. Sheffield

I don't think this is a uniquely Presbyterian practice. As a Baptist, I know "debts" is the word employed when Baptist recite the Lord's Prayer (and sometimes hang it on the sanctuary wall). Why? That's how the King James says it. I don't think its any more complicated than that.

Yes, but the KJV uses trespasses as well in Luke 11.

-----Added 9/17/2009 at 12:10:39 EST-----

So bottom line, human tradition?

Originally Posted by 21st Century Calvinist

I too would imagine it's probably from the KJV. No need to automatically blame the oppressed Scots.

Why not? Don't you know that the Scots are the root of all evil?

I grew up on "debts" in the Baptist church but our current senior pastor uses "trespasses." Since I'm guilty on both scores, either word works for my wretched soul.

I read somewhere that Jesus spoke Aramaic and debt and sin are the same word in Aramaic.

Originally Posted by kevin.carroll

Originally Posted by C. M. Sheffield

I don't think this is a uniquely Presbyterian practice. As a Baptist, I know "debts" is the word employed when Baptist recite the Lord's Prayer (and sometimes hang it on the sanctuary wall). Why? That's how the King James says it. I don't think its any more complicated than that.

Yes, but the KJV uses trespasses as well in Luke 11.

-----Added 9/17/2009 at 12:10:39 EST-----

So bottom line, human tradition?

Not so brother, Note:

And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil. - Luke 11:4 AV

So, "sins" and "indebted" are the words used here.

The word "debt" is true to the Greek text. I am probably not answering the question, but here is the original Greek text:


καὶ ἄφες ἡμῖν τὰ ὀφειλήματα ἡμῶν, ὡς καὶ ἡμεῖς ἀφίεμεν τοῖς ὀφειλέταις ἡμῶν·

The definition of ὀφειλήματα according to Louw-Nida is to release a person from the obligation of repaying what is owed - 'to cancel a debt, to forgive a debt.

Originally Posted by Southern Presbyterian

Perhaps I too am dense regarding the subject, but why would it be significant to use one word as opposed to the other? Is there a theological impact that I am failing to see?

No, I don't think so. And for that matter, apparently neither did Christ. In Matthew 6 our Lord used the word for "debt" in the pattern prayer, but immediately applied it to what was translated in the KJV as "trespasses."

Mat 6:12: And forgive us our debts (ὀφειλήματα--opheilēmata), as we forgive our debtors.

Mat 6:14-15: For if ye forgive men their trespasses(παραπτώματα--paraptōmata), your heavenly Father will also forgive you:
But if ye forgive not men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses.

I grew up Catholic-ish, and we said "Trespasses." (Actually, then I grew up Baptist-ish, and we also used trespasses. I still have to think about what to say next when praying in presby churches or while teaching my son.

I don't know theologically which is more accurate, but the ESV translates it to debts, and that's what Bible our church uses, so I think it is right to use that word. If our Bible translation of choice used trespass, then I think we should use trespass.

Originally Posted by jawyman

The word "debt" is true to the Greek text. I am probably not answering the question, but here is the original Greek text:


καὶ ἄφες ἡμῖν τὰ ὀφειλήματα ἡμῶν, ὡς καὶ ἡμεῖς ἀφίεμεν τοῖς ὀφειλέταις ἡμῶν·

The definition of ὀφειλήματα according to Louw-Nida is to release a person from the obligation of repaying what is owed - 'to cancel a debt, to forgive a debt.

That is truly the most awful font I have ever seen!

-----Added 9/17/2009 at 05:53:54 EST-----

Originally Posted by C. M. Sheffield

Not so brother, Note:

And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil. - Luke 11:4 AV

So, "sins" and "indebted" are the words used here.

Funny. I said that without even looking at Luke 11. So much for assuming. I can't look at the Greek right now because some [insert appropriate imprecation here] person broke into the church on Thursday and stole my laptop while I was out. I am working at home and, of course, my Greek NT is at the office.

All trespasses are sins, so I suspect that point is moot. I think the question then really is, why do we say debts instead of trespasses (or sins, if you prefer)?

Tradition?