The Gospel according to Jesus

Preach · #1 (**permalink**) 06-05-2006, 02:54 PM

In Mark 1:14-15, we have a specimen of Jesus' preaching. In v.15, He says to "repent, and belive the Gospel". In v.14, He seems to equate, or relate that to the "kingdom of God".

The Apostle Paul defines "the Gospel" in 1 Corinthians 15 uniquely as 'the death, burial, and resurrection' of Christ.

Question: What did Jesus mean by the term "the Gospel"? Any help/thoughts are appreciated?

"In Christ",
Bobby

Joshua · #2 (**permalink**) 06-05-2006, 02:56 PM

Gospel=Good News. The same Gospel of which Paul spoke.

Texas Aggie · #3 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 01:01 PM

The Gospel is defined in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.

Gospel: Christ died for our sins "according to the scriptures"--he was buried and rose again the third day "according to the scriptures."

His death "according to the scriptures" proves His divinity. If He did not die "according to the scriptures," then He is simply not God.

Robin · #4 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 01:51 PM

Quote:

Originally posted by Preach
In Mark 1:14-15, we have a specimen of Jesus' preaching. In v.15, He says to "repent, and belive the Gospel". In v.14, He seems to equate, or relate that to the "kingdom of God".

The Apostle Paul defines "the Gospel" in 1 Corinthians 15 uniquely as 'the death, burial, and resurrection' of Christ.

Question: What did Jesus mean by the term "the Gospel"? Any help/thoughts are appreciated?

You're onto something, Bobby!

Jesus' content of his teachings were largely based upon "kingdom" language. Recall, Jesus continually alludes to the kingdom being "at hand"; "my kingdom"; Etc. (Do a word-search on "kingdom" in all the Gospels and notice what Jesus is driving at!)

Since Christ is The King of this Kingdom, he is doing some specific things in his ministry. One is, acting as the last OT prophet, Jesus both pronounces blessings and curses (in a judicial manner) upon Israel; he inaugurates the "New Covenant" and ratifies it upon a Roman cross in blood (see Genesis 15 where YHWH swears the oath to Abraham) and in the NT, Jesus, the God-man, indeed fulfills that Promise made to Abraham! In Mark, Jesus (the greater "Moses") mediates the New Covenant, leading his people "through the desert" in a "new exodus," feeding them manna from heaven; healing the sick; proving his authority over nature - as his miracles attest to. Remember, all the OT types that point to Christ? This is why Christ is said to have fulfilled them ALL. There is not one thing that Jesus says or does that is random or without pregnant eschatalogical meaning.

Bobby, look again at the entire context of the passage you mentioned:

Mark 1:14-15

Now after John was arrested, Jesus came into Galilee, proclaiming the gospel of God, and saying, "The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent and believe in the gospel."

Doesn't this make better sense? Jesus IS The Gospel (of course) and as such He is proclaiming the time has finally come - what time? Eschatalogical fulfillment of Genesis 3:15; of Genesis 15; and the OT declarations of God promising to provide a King of a Kingdom that will never end - Heaven, the home of righteousness. At last, the "kingdom" where God will indeed dwell among his people is on the earth. Wherever Jesus is, the kingdom is. Jesus is the same God who was a pillar of fire/cloud in the OT. In Christ, now God can dwell safely among His people (without consuming them like a bug-zapper!) And yet, the final consumation is to come!

Jesus' Gospel is the Gospel of God -- the message of The Kingdom and The King. They are necessarily linked. It is the story of the The Great Creator-King who promised to give a people and kingdom to his Vice-Regent.

Robin

[Edited on 6-6-2006 by Robin]

Preach · #5 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 01:52 PM

How would the people who heard Christ (pre-passion) understand "the Gospel"?

Robin · #6 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 02:09 PM

Quote:

Originally posted by Preach
How would the people who heard Christ (pre-passion) understand "the Gospel"?

It's all there, in the Text, B.

The Jews would refer to the Bible of the day: the Old Testament.

Be careful to consider: the error of the Pharissees was man's addition to God's Law (the ten commandments) focusing on man-centered worship and working to please God. Religious, self-righteous zealots, arrogantly clinging to their idea of God.

Jesus confronts them and says they do not understand the Scriptures (he wrote the OT!) correcting their error. In many cases, the Jews Jesus condemned knew exactly who He was and yet accused him of being in league with Satan.

Not to start a fight -- but careful examination reveals that the Pharisees were no different than our present day Theonomists. They insisted that God's Law and from it, a "kingdom" be established upon the earth, in a political sense. The moment the Jewish people realized Jesus wasn't going to be their political savior, they rejected him. Some of the people saw him as a "meal ticket" (feeding the 5 thousand.)

It all really comes down to: "who do you say that I am?" --- Jesus

r.

North Jersey Baptist · #7 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 02:22 PM

Quote:

Originally posted by Preach
How would the people who heard Christ (pre-passion) understand "the Gospel"?

It is not as difficult as people might think. The woman at the well (John 4),and her entire town came to understand the "euangellian" (good news/gospel). This was before the passion of Christ.

[Edited on 6-6-2006 by BaptistInCrisis]

Joshua · #8 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 03:13 PM

Adam understood as God spoke to the serpent.

A Messiah who would crush the head of Satan.

BobVigneault · #9 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 03:22 PM

This is from the third lesson in Daniel Doriani's class on the Life and Teachings of Christ.

"The Gospel of Mark, chapter 1, verse 1 says, "The beginning of the Gospel of [or about] Jesus Christ, the Son of God." Now you may say, "That doesn't tell us the purpose but only tells us what the book is." But the word 'Gospel' didn't mean 'the four Gospels' until much later. Mark (or maybe Matthew; it's hard to tell) was probably the first Gospel written and when he uses the word 'Gospel' or 'evangelium' that word meant 'a decree of joyful tidings.' Many of you have heard that the word 'Gospel' means 'good news.' That's true, but it's not just any old good news, like your favorite baseball team won, or there was a little bit of rain last night that spruced up the flowers.

Rather, it means an announcement of broad significance. For example, when an emperor had a son born into his family, he sent out a decree saying, "Evangelium, good news, gospel..." When it was the birthday of Emperor Augustus or Octavian and he wanted everybody to celebrate, the decree said, "Good news! The birthday of the god Augustus (or Octavian) is coming! Evangelium, gospel! Joyful tidings for the world!"

So the word 'Gospel' in Mark 1:1, "the beginning of the Gospel about Jesus Christ," has the idea of an announcement of important news, important for the empire. Jesus is not being proclaimed as an emperor, of course, but this is official language, saying, "Here is an event that has significance for the world." Mark says, "I'm beginning to tell you that this event is good news concerning Jesus Christ, the Son of God," and even those words tell us what Mark is all about. The word 'Jesus' means 'Savior, Christ, Messiah, anointed one.' The anointed one who is the Savior, who is the Son of God, has come and His birth is a vital announcement of wonderful news for this world. That's what the first verse of Mark tells us and the book unfolds until people recognize it."

[Edited on 6-6-2006 by BobVigneault]

Puddleglum · #10 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 04:00 PM

Bob,
Thanks for posting that - I've just recently started reading through Mark, and that quote helps - and it's pretty cool!

Contra_Mundum · #11 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 04:18 PM

I'd have to agree that "the gospel" content, as we find summarized post-first-advent (1 Cor. 15:3-4, or Rom 4:25) cannot be the same in this sense: that the Apostolic gospel was directly connected to the finished work of Christ. But the focus of the gospel was indeed the same, had to be the same, because the gospel is Christological, inescapably.

In the latter sense, the Prophets too were gospel preachers. The gospel began to be preached in Gen. 3:15. The various contexts being: the Messiah is coming, he's here, he came and was successful. All three of those are "gospel," but all three sound slightly different, and contain content suited to the conditions into which the gospel is proclaimed.

Take the books of Isaiah (OT) and Romans (NT) as perhaps the "standout" examples of gospel from the two economies. Both proclaim THE gospel, as having reference to Jesus Christ. Note Luke 4:16ff. "18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he has appointed me to preach the gospel...." That is from Isaiah, and Jesus announces: "Today this Scripture is fulfilled in your hearing" (v21). In Romans Paul systematically explains the gospel of our age, full of clarity and confidence in the accomplishment of all that the OT had promised.

This is the "gospel" in each age: Christ the promise (1) // the fulfillment (2), and the explanation (3). And in each instance, there is the implications for life in the context of the hour that we walk about on the stage. And at some point, all the saints are brought into a common eschatological context (do you like that, Robin?), where we live/work/worship in the everlasting kingdom in the same context as those whose historical contexts were parallel to our own and very different. It is in that future/eternal context that "gospel" will have one, single, historical meaning for all of us (OT/NT). IOW, that which is true in principle now (in Christ), becomes the reality. For it will be the common spring for the New Beginning, the New Genesis.

SolaScriptura · #12 (**permalink**) 06-06-2006, 04:25 PM

Preach · #13 (**permalink**) 06-07-2006, 11:40 AM

Thanks everyone.

Peccant · #14 (**permalink**) 07-04-2006, 10:47 AM

Perhaps you're all finished with this one now Preach, but this is an interesting point made by L Berkhof.

Quote from his Systematic Theol.

"There is law and gospel in the Old Testament, and there is law and gospel in the New. The law comprises everything in Scripture which is a revelation of God´s will in the form of command or prohibition, while the gospel embraces everything, whether it be in the Old Testament or in the New, that pertains to the work of reconciliation and that proclaims the seeking and redeeming love of God in Christ Jesus. And each one of these two parts has its own proper function in the economy of grace. The law seeks to awaken in the heart of man contrition on account of sin, while the gospel aims at the awakening of saving faith in Jesus Christ. The work of the law is in a sense preparatory to that of the gospel. It deepens the consciousness of sin and thus makes the sinner aware of the need of redemption. Both are subservient to the same end, and both are indispensable parts of the means of grace. This truth has not always been sufficiently recognized."

Cheers Art.