Does Gen 2:7 and John 20:22 share the same word?

thesoveriegnist · #1 (**permalink**) 04-26-2009, 08:23 PM

I was listening to my pastor preach last week, he is preaching through the gospel of John. In John 20:22 Scripture reads "And when He has said this, He breathed on them...". In Genesis 2:7 Scripture reads "then the Lord God formed the man of the dust from the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life...". My question in all this, do these two passages have anything in common? Does the breathing of actual life into man have anything to do with God breathing on the disciples?

Your thoughts on this would be much appreciated.

***toddpedlar*** · #2 (**permalink**) 04-26-2009, 08:40 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by thesoveriegnist

I was listening to my pastor preach last week, he is preaching through the gospel of John. In John 20:22 Scripture reads "And when He has said this, He breathed on them...". In Genesis 2:7 Scripture reads "then the Lord God formed the man of the dust from the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life...". My question in all this, do these two passages have anything in common? Does the breathing of actual life into man have anything to do with God breathing on the disciples?

Your thoughts on this would be much appreciated.

I can say yes they are the same word, but only insofar as the Septuagint translators rendered the Hebrew original of Genesis 2:7. The Greek of the Septuagint at Genesis 2:7 and the Greek of John 20:22 are the same verb "breathe on", yes.

Is there commonality there? Well, both are breathing actions - in the one, Adam did not have the Holy Spirit, and in the other, the disciples did... so I'm not sure I'd go too far in linking these two. The fact that they each use the same word indicates to me that both are breathing actions, and use a word that means "breathe" and not be too certain that it goes much further than that.

thesoveriegnist · #3 (**permalink**) 04-26-2009, 08:48 PM

Is there not some corellation that could be drawn that God breathed into Adam to bring him to life and He breathed on the disciples during the time in which He sent the Holy Spirit to live among them?
I am just curious, I'm not trying to force an issue.

Richard Tallach · #4 (**permalink**) 05-19-2009, 08:46 PM

I believe the Hebrew word for Spirit/spirit and breath is the same word ruach although I'm willing to be corrected on that.

We see the Holy Trinity in Genesis chapter 1, with God, His Word and the Spirit all being mentioned. See also Psalm 33:6.

I have heard commentators relating the passage you speak of to Pentecost and that the sound of a rushing mighty wind (Acts 2:2) was the exalted Christ - who now had all power in heaven and on earth - breathing the Spirit, as it were, on the Disciples. The breathing of Christ on the Disciples in John 20:22 would then be a "down payment" or token of what He was going to do.

The great difference between Adam and the Disciples is that Adam was receiving firstly "natural" life, as well as original righteousness and the Spirit of God; the Disciples had natural life, were believers but sinners, and were receiving the Spirit in a new way as a gift of God's grace.

Whitefield · #5 (**permalink**) 05-19-2009, 09:07 PM

Gen 2:7 MT napah
John 20:22 Delitzsch Hebrew NT napah

Gen 2:7 LXX ἐμφυσάω
John 20:22 ἐμφυσάω

Gen 2:7 Vulgate inspiro
John 20:22 Vulgate insuflo

**armourbearer** · #6 (**permalink**) 05-19-2009, 09:12 PM

The action of the risen Christ was undoubtedly symbolical and intended to teach the disciples that what breath is to the life and activity of man that is what the Holy Spirit is to the life and mission of the church.

**PuritanCovenanter** · #7 (**permalink**) 05-19-2009, 09:22 PM

I am very doubtful that the Holy Spirit didn't indwell Adam. Thus the term regenerate seems to signify generation again. Can I see something that would confirm that Adam wasn't indwelt with the Spirit of God. I saw this teaching in another thread a while back and questioned it.