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OT Wisdom Literature Discussion of texts in Job, Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes and Song of Solomon
The Lord is my light and salvation; whom shall I fear? (Ps. 27:1)

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Old 10-14-2008, 09:31 AM
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What does Psalm 6:5 mean?

Psalm 6 was part of my reading this morning, and verse 5 struck me as odd. What are your opinions on its meaning?

Quote:
5 For in death there is no remembrance of thee; in the grave who shall give thee thanks?
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Old 10-14-2008, 09:41 AM
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David is lamenting his plight. His despondency is clearly evident. He is emphasizing the silence and finality of the grave in order to accentuate what he is feeling. He is not making a theological statement that God is not present in or after death.
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Old 10-14-2008, 09:42 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by North Jersey Baptist View Post
David is lamenting his plight. His despondency is clearly evident. He is emphasizing the silence and finality of the grave in order to accentuate what he is feeling. He is not making a theological statement that God is not present in or after death.
I understand that David is lamenting, but there has to be a reason why he chose to express his lament in these particular words. Could you elaborate on your third sentence?
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Old 10-14-2008, 09:43 AM
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Verse 4 helps in understanding the immediate context. I've always taken this as beseeching the Lord for deliverance before its too late because after death it is already too late so the psalmist (in this case David) is asking God for deliverance so that he can continue to accomplish God's will in this life.

I hope this helps.
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Old 10-14-2008, 10:20 AM
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I think one of the things in view is the more "corporate" or covenant aspect of people's lives, rather than the individual. Life is "in the community" in the world. Radical individualism is not a summum bonum for David. Total individualism, as pertains to this world, comes at death. In death, there is no remembrance or giving of thanks to the Lord, for this is fundamentally a community-activity--and this one is cut off from that community.

Now, if one looks at it from the standpoint of HOPE, and from that individual person, he has been "gathered to his people" (Gen.49:33). He has been incorporated into a pure and perfect community. So, it is not as if David can be said to not understand that there is life and community beyond the grave--not unless one denies Mosaic authorship of the Pentateuch, and David's familiarity with all the Law he claims to love.

Therefore, it is from the earthly vantage point that David says what he says in v5. If he dies, then as a corpse he goes into the ground, and no longer joins the rest of the living in remembrance and thanksgiving. And the rest of the living (in the world) are cut off from him, and suffer his loss.


And I think Micheal's observation is also meritorious.
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Old 10-14-2008, 10:35 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Davidius View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by North Jersey Baptist View Post
David is lamenting his plight. His despondency is clearly evident. He is emphasizing the silence and finality of the grave in order to accentuate what he is feeling. He is not making a theological statement that God is not present in or after death.
I understand that David is lamenting, but there has to be a reason why he chose to express his lament in these particular words. Could you elaborate on your third sentence?
There is nothing so final as death. We know that death outside of Christ is to be separated from God for eternity. While David was alive he was still able to breath, eat, think, behold the beauty of nature; even under terrible circumstances. Have you ever experienced circumstances that were so bad that you couldn't imagine them getting worse? The truth is that they can get worse. In order to emphasize that, David introduces the finality of the grave. In death the tongue is silent. There is no mention of God. In David's lament, death would be the ultimate extent of his despondency.

But David did believe in the resurrection (c.f. Psalm 16:5,6; 8-11; Psalm 49:9); therefore he did not believe the grave actually was final. In Psalm 6 David used the grave as the most potent form of illustration he could think of in order to make his point.
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Old 11-03-2008, 05:42 PM
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Dear Davidius

The Hebrew of Psalm 6:5 are as follows:
Quote:
כִּי אֵין בַּמָּוֶת זִכְרֶךָ בִּשְׁאול מִי יודֶה־לָּךְ׃
Quote:
Because in the dead there is not your remembrance, In sheol who [gives] praise to you.
(my terrible translation)

Many of the OT writers didn't share the same understanding of death and life after death with us today. The realm of the dead, sheol, was a place where you lived a shadowy existence. For many early readers/ hearers of the Bible, the realm of the dead was the one place where God's presence were not felt. He was not there.

This view of total abandonment is challenged in the story of Jonah. In Jonah 2 the prophet describe how far he had moved from God, yet in the heart of sheol, God answered his prayer (Jonah 2:6). Psalm 139 also challenges the idea in verse 8:
Quote:
If I ascend to heaven, you are there! If I make my bed in Sheol, you are there!
In Psalm 6 the Psalmist reminds God that death is just a shadowy existence, (the way he understood it). If God doesn't hear his voice, he implies that he won't be able to worship him. As abandoned as he would be in death, as abandoned would God be from his worshippers.

Kind regards


Elimelek
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Old 11-03-2008, 07:22 PM
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Bruce Buchanan's point is also brought out in Philippians 1:24, 25, "Nevertheless to abide in the flesh is more needful for you. And having this confidence, I know that I shall abide and continue with you all for your furtherance and joy of faith."
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