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OT Wisdom Literature Discussion of texts in Job, Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes and Song of Solomon
The Lord is my light and salvation; whom shall I fear? (Ps. 27:1)

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Old 03-05-2008, 01:02 PM
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Christ and the Psalter

When we approach the Psalms to what extent is Christ in every single one (i.e. should it be Christ speaking in every one?) and what is the Christological story of the Psalter as divided up by book? Thoughts?
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Old 03-05-2008, 01:03 PM
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When we approach the Psalms to what extent is Christ in every single one (i.e. should it be Christ speaking in every one?) and what is the Christological story of the Psalter as divided up by book? Thoughts?
Since He wrote them, He is definitely in everyone of them.
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Old 03-05-2008, 01:06 PM
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I would agree Daniel but I do think we need to be careful not to shoehorn Christ into places that he does not fit. While yes Christ is in the words of Scripture it would not be true to say everything speaks directly about and to Christ in the Psalms or the rest of the OT.
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Old 03-05-2008, 01:08 PM
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I would agree Daniel but I do think we need to be careful not to shoehorn Christ into places that he does not fit. While yes Christ is in the words of Scripture it would not be true to say everything speaks directly about and to Christ in the Psalms or the rest of the OT.
Do you mean in the sense of speaking about Christ's work as mediator?
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Old 03-05-2008, 01:09 PM
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How do you mean?
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Old 03-05-2008, 01:19 PM
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Since He wrote them, He is definitely in everyone of them.
That I doubt not, what do you think is the Christological narrative within the first book? I can see a good picture of Christ here on earth, the story being one of his suffering. But then take the Hallelujah psalms in Book 5 (Pss. 148-150). These do not have Christ in them personnally...I am just trying to think through what the narrative is from Ps. 1 to Ps. 150.
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Old 03-05-2008, 02:00 PM
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Messianic Psalms

Hi All there is a good series of articles on Christ in the Psalms by Rev Roderick MacLeod - Part 3 is Which Psalms Are Messianic?
It is at the following address (you need to scroll down)
http://www.fpchurch.org.uk/Magazines.../September.pdf
the previous articles are excellent too.
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Old 03-05-2008, 03:19 PM
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Another fantastic work I am presently reading is "Christ and His Church in the Book of Psalms" by Andrew Bonar. While, I am not sure I agree with every observation, overall I appreciate his approach and many of his comments are thought provoking.
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Old 03-05-2008, 04:41 PM
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Since He wrote them, He is definitely in everyone of them.
How is Christ in Psalm 6:1 "O LORD, rebuke me not in thine anger, neither chasten me in thy hot displeasure." To what is this refering if Christological?
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Old 03-05-2008, 05:03 PM
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Horne comments: "O Lord, rebuke me not in thine anger, neither chasten me in thine hot displeasure." He expects that God will " rebuke" him, but only prays that it may not be in "anger," finally to destroy him ; he desires to be chastened, but chastened in fatherly love, not in the "hot displeasure" of an inexorable judge. As often as we are led thus to express our sense of sin, and dread of punishment, let us reflect on Him, whose righteous soul, endued with a sensibility peculiar to itself, sustained the sins of the
world, and the displeasure of the Father.

see his comments on rest of the psalm
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Old 03-05-2008, 06:43 PM
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He wrote them...David?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Daniel Ritchie View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by AV1611 View Post
When we approach the Psalms to what extent is Christ in every single one (i.e. should it be Christ speaking in every one?) and what is the Christological story of the Psalter as divided up by book? Thoughts?
Since He wrote them, He is definitely in everyone of them.
Meaning? Since he wrote them, half of them are attributed to David? Please explain.

John
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Old 03-06-2008, 12:44 AM
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Rev Roderick MacLeod's Article

In reading Rev Roderick MacLeod's article, I came to this section:

“3. Psalms where David, or some other Old Testament figure is a type of
Christ. We will mention a few examples.
What is Psalm 133 to us if it speaks only of the anointing oil running
down the beard of Aaron and to the skirts of his garments? What if we are
not directed thereby to our great high Priest, and His holy unction flowing
down to His people? What if we are not to think of believers as like the
woman with the issue of blood, around His garments, speaking the language
of faith and love and drawing virtue from Him?
It is of comparatively small value today to read Psalm 89 and think only
of the sad decline of the royal house of David and the apparent decline of the
royal covenant which God made with him. But it is of great use to us to look
at the “Man of rest” promised to David – the “Prince of peace” who was to
sit upon his throne.”

His interpretation is troubling. Psalm 133 is speaking about the blessing of God's gift of unity. The similes of oil and dew are profound when their origin is considered. Like brotherly unity, they are coming down from God. cf. Kidner.

Is the text not clear?
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Old 03-06-2008, 05:27 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sydnorphyn View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Daniel Ritchie View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by AV1611 View Post
When we approach the Psalms to what extent is Christ in every single one (i.e. should it be Christ speaking in every one?) and what is the Christological story of the Psalter as divided up by book? Thoughts?
Since He wrote them, He is definitely in everyone of them.
Meaning? Since he wrote them, half of them are attributed to David? Please explain.

John
Since they are the word of God, then Christ wrote them through David.
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Old 03-06-2008, 05:28 AM
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Quote:
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Daniel Ritchie View Post
Since He wrote them, He is definitely in everyone of them.
How is Christ in Psalm 6:1 "O LORD, rebuke me not in thine anger, neither chasten me in thy hot displeasure." To what is this refering if Christological?
It refers to Christ purifying His church.
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Old 03-06-2008, 08:16 AM
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Luke 24 and John 5 mean that the Psalter is about Jesus. I would agree that not every detail should be expounded as pointing to Christ (see Arthur Pink for typology gone amuck). However, Christ is definitely in the Psalter, and in far more places than just the Messianic Psalms (2,8,22,45,110, etc.). I do not believe that the Psalter has a narrative. it is poetry. Some Psalms have an historical background given in the preface. Many, however, do not. I also believe that Christ is the ultimate Singer of the Psalms. This is not to deny its historical situatedness. But the historical situatedness points to various aspects of Christ and His ministry.
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Old 03-06-2008, 12:49 PM
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It refers to Christ purifying His church.
Are you saying then that it is not Christ who is speaking i.e. it is not Christ asking the Father "rebuke me not in thine anger, neither chasten me in thy hot displeasure" but rather the church speaking to Christ?
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Old 03-06-2008, 03:24 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Brett McKinley View Post
In reading Rev Roderick MacLeod's article, I came to this section:

“3. Psalms where David, or some other Old Testament figure is a type of
Christ. We will mention a few examples.
What is Psalm 133 to us if it speaks only of the anointing oil running
down the beard of Aaron and to the skirts of his garments? What if we are
not directed thereby to our great high Priest, and His holy unction flowing
down to His people? What if we are not to think of believers as like the
woman with the issue of blood, around His garments, speaking the language
of faith and love and drawing virtue from Him?
It is of comparatively small value today to read Psalm 89 and think only
of the sad decline of the royal house of David and the apparent decline of the
royal covenant which God made with him. But it is of great use to us to look
at the “Man of rest” promised to David – the “Prince of peace” who was to
sit upon his throne.”

His interpretation is troubling. Psalm 133 is speaking about the blessing of God's gift of unity. The similes of oil and dew are profound when their origin is considered. Like brotherly unity, they are coming down from God. cf. Kidner.

Is the text not clear?
Hi - I don't find it troubling it's basically similar to the Puritan Thomas Adams:
"Christ's grace is so diffusive of itself, that it conveys holiness to us, "running down from the head to the skirts", to all his members. He was not only anointed himself, but he is our anointer. Therefore it is called "the oil of gladness", because it rejoiceth our hearts, by giving us spiritual gladness, and peace of conscience."

I think that it is clear that the oil and dew are symbols of the Holy Spirit in Scripture and the Spirit proceeds from both the Father and the Son. Christ received the Spirit without measure. He pours out the Spirit upon his people. Their union and communion with each other depend upon their union with him and the activity of the Spirit.

thanks Matthew
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Old 03-06-2008, 05:25 PM
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Quote:
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Daniel Ritchie View Post
It refers to Christ purifying His church.
Are you saying then that it is not Christ who is speaking i.e. it is not Christ asking the Father "rebuke me not in thine anger, neither chasten me in thy hot displeasure" but rather the church speaking to Christ?
That is how I see it at present; but I have not done any great study in the text. You will need to consult Lane Keister the commentators.
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Old 07-08-2008, 10:19 AM
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To add my two cents....
All of Scripture is 1. God's Word 2. Written by men like us, in situations like us. Paul wrote to the mission churches with godly counsel and the Lord inspired those words. (I do not believe that God spoke the words and the authors merely typed them up- the psalter, I believe, is evidence enough).

I conclude that the psalms were written by real men (inspired too) in real situations. As we read, and sing, the psalms we relate to what is going on. (It is amazing how many of the psalms refer to enemies and seeking the Lord to rescue the author). At the same time we must know the gospel, the person and work of Christ and we will see the Christocentric connection points. We must be careful not to force Christ into every word, clause, or stanza (I've heard John MacArthur do this), instead we must let the text speak for itself. It is clear that the psalter does speak of Christ- how does it then? It seems to me many of the psalms are a vibrant picture of a robust spirituality that trusts in God's promises and in the mystical union that we have with Christ. How else can one sing many of the psalms? It is only when we are united with Christ that God is our rock, our refuge, our wings (all Hebrew words for conversion, i.e. united with Christ)
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Old Yesterday, 12:04 PM
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Has anybody read War Psalm's of the Prince of Peace by Jim Adams on this?
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