This is a random question, but one I'd like answered if possible. (I'm not quite sure if this is the correct place to post this, but here I go anyhow).

Anyhow, here is the question.
Let's take a woman who has children who has been widowed.
This woman remarries someone. Would this woman's children then be considered/reckoned the man's children whom she married?

In our culture they are called "step-children".
Would they simply be called children in the jewish culture?
Does this question make sense?

__________________
Blake R.
Redeemer Fellowship (pursuing membership)
Lenexa, KS.

They should just be called "children" here, too.... but we've devalued the parenting of the man or woman who marry the remaining parent to an awful degree in this country.

My guess is this "step" thing might be a modern phenomenon... I wonder if before divorce was the primary cause of new husbands/wives entering the picture, children of a widow who remarries were simply known as children of the new husband/father?

__________________
Todd K. Pedlar
member, First Congregational Church, (CCCC) Cresco, IA
http://inprincipiodeus.solideogloria.com
http://puritanwisdom.blogspot.com

"As God did not at first choose you because you were high, He will not now forsake you because you are low."
John Flavel in Keeping the Heart



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This actually reminds me of an AWFUL thing I heard on the radio the other day from a Christian program. Now as one who is not the child of divorced parents, nor divorced myself, I might very well be out of line here, but it seems to me the Bible does NOT support what I'm relating from this program (Family Life Today with Dennis Rainey).

On the program, the issue of step-parents was being discussed, and what I heard them to say was this - that whoever is the biological parent is the one who needs to exercise discipline and to have the final say in disciplinary matters... the new wife (or husband) must submit to the decisions of the biological parent, at least at the beginning, because they first have to gain trust before they have authority.

How does this square with Scripture? The father, adoptive or not, is the head of the house, period. It doesn't matter if he's been stepfather for 2 minutes or 2 years.

Thoughts? Again, if I'm being naive because of my inexperience with step-parents, please forgive my ignorance and help me understand.

Thanks

I see. So my next question I guess would be this.
For the purpose of genealogical/biblical records, who would be counted as the father. The deceased biological father or the parenting father?

Maybe that child would be counted to both? Like the legal child of one, but the physical of the other?

I'm just curious.