Is it possible in the OT to differentiate when the Scriptures speak of Jesus and when they refer to the Father? If not all the time, are there key indicators that let us know when they are referring to Jesus?

Thanks!

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Nick Jenkins
Pilgrim Presbyterian Church (OPC)
Lapeer, MI

Probably not the answer you are looking for, but a comprehensive study Bible like the ESV Study Bible (and only slightly less so, the Reformation Study Bible) will point out when it speaks of Jesus.

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Mitch
Presbyterian Church of Coventry, CT (PCA)

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sarah
WI
OPC
My Pastor's Sermons: Mark Jenkins...he's awesome!!!

Oh that's awesome. I've got an ESV Study Bible on the way. Now I'm really excited. Thanks all!

There are some clues, I would suggest all the theophanies were actually the Son and never the father, for the Jesus says in John 6:46 "Not that anyone has seen the Father, except He who is from God; He has seen the Father.

As the name Elohim is often used of God (2300+ I think) in the Old testement, and this is the plural, perhaps it would aslo be prudent to note that often our word 'God' in the old testement may be referring noy just to the father, but also to the son and the holy spirit, eg gen 1:1. That singular verbs and pronouns are often used in relation to this plural noun, I believe really emphasise the God is one, but there are three who are God doctrine that we call trinitarianism.

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Jonathan
Deacon (full time)
Independent Reformed Baptist (BCF 1689)
Tinshill Free Church, Leeds, UK.