I had a strange conversation with a Muslim this morning.
As I took this refugee woman to work-- because she has
no car-- I handed her a print-out of a chapter of the Bible
in Arabic. As she read through it, she had a question that
stumped me for a minute.

In the OT when you come across the phrase, "the Lord
is God" or "the Lord --he is God" who is the word "Lord"
referring to?

For some reason --I think because I was speaking with
a Muslim and I already had the deity of Christ on the
brain --I said that the Bible tells us that Jesus is "Lord."
So this is a reference to Jesus (the Lord) being God.

Now, I'm really not so sure that that's the correct
interpretation of the various passages that proclaim
"the Lord is God" in the OT, but it was simply what
rolled off my tongue at the time.

Any thoughts on what that OT phrase means?

Is it simply another way of saying "God (our God)
He is God"?

Or is it "the Lord (Jesus) is God"?

Thanks

__________________
Matthew Scheffer
Christ The Redeemer (non-denominational)
http://www.christredeemer.com
Spokane, WA

The OT LORD (as opposed to the occasions of seeing "Lord" or "lord") is the "Jehovah" name.

It is a proper name of the one and only, and triune God of ALL Scripture.

The NT usage of "Lord" to refer to Jesus identifies him with the God of the Old Testament. The NT term is the same as the old Greek Septuagint translation of the OT used for "Jehovah", that is: "Kurios".

Texts in the NT that quote the OT and use "Lord" might be applied to the Father, Son, or Spirit, as the context will indicate. Possibly even undifferentiated at times, that is, referred to all three at once.

__________________
Rev. Bruce G. Buchanan
ChainOLakes Presbyterian Church, CentralLake, MI


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