Hello all,
I am preparing for an essay I have to write tomorrow for my exam in my Biblical Covenants class. The essay was given to us before hand. We have to answer the question: Did God make a (pre-fall) covenant with Adam? We need to present both sides of the argument and then defend the side we agree with. I know one important verse is Hosea 6:7, but it has been argued that it could mean "at Adam" in reference to a town called Adam. Could any of you point me to some resources for both sides of this, or perhaps name some important arguments to look into for each side?
Thanks a lot!
Grace and Peace,
Dan

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Dan Dorman
Member of Pilgrim OPC in my hometown-Bangor, Maine
Currently attending Christ the King OPC in Longview, Texas, where I am a college student

“The happiness of the creature consists in rejoicing in God, by which also God is magnified and exalted” -Jonathan Edwards
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Here is a discussion between Gene Bridges and a New Covenant Guy. Both sides are presented.

Is there a Covenant of Works... A discussion between a NCT guy and Gene Bridges. - The PuritanBoard

To bad it is due tomorrow. Dr. Bob Gonzales has done an article I can send to you if I had his permission. It was printed in a Reformed Baptist Theological Review Journal. It is real good. He also just had a recent thread concerning the Hosea passage and an Isaiah text also. Isaiah 24:5 and the Covenant of Works

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R. Martin Snyder
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http://www.puritanboard.com/blogs/puritancovenanter/

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Brother,

Thanks for the complement. You certainly have my permission to forward the article to anyone who may be interested.

Your servant,

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Bob Gonzales Jr., Dean
Reformed Baptist Seminary
Easley, South Carolina

"Persons need not and ought not to set any bounds to their spiritual and gracious appetites." Jonathan Edwards