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The Confession of Faith Discuss Westminster Standards, 1689 Confession and 3 Forms of Unity
Let us hold fast the confession of our hope without wavering, for He who promised is faithful (Heb. 10:23)

Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy. Six days you shall labor and do all your work, but the seventh day is the Sabbath of the LORD your God.

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Old 03-01-2008, 03:21 PM
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I have no problem with figurative language either. However, I do believe that if one cannot translate figurative language into literal language, then you do not understand what the figurative language means. Similarly, Christ's parables where explained clearly to the disciples in literal language because they could not understand the parables.
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Old 03-01-2008, 03:33 PM
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Thanks again brother for you reasoned responce. I will try to address some of it now as I only have a short time.
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Thank you for posting a Scriptural argument. This gives us something more substantial to work with.
My pleasure.

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Let me ask you this - if a demon had more than a "bare historical faith", would he be saved? Are there any elect demons? Even if we grant that the demons believe in the whole of the gospel, isn't it also the case that this belief was heart-felt? The demons believed it to the point that they trembled. But can a demon believe the promises to those who believe applies to him?
The text demonstrates the difference between saving and non-saving faith. James is showing that there is a faith (knowledge and assent), that stops short of true faith. This is James' argument, not mine,..
This is the point in contention. It is not a given.

James all along has been speaking of works as proof of true faith. And it appears as if he is saying we are saved by works. However, we know that James is speaking about how true faith is demonstrated by the evidence. We are careful to contend we are saved by faith alone, apart from the works which are the evidence of faith. We need to take that same care as we understand the meaning of faith.

So we still need to determine if Jame's argument is directed at "knowledge and assent" that lacks trust. His point may be not more than a claim to have faith does not make your faith true. And we know that belief in "one God" is only sufficient to damn a person.

But even if James argument was against "knowledge and assent" without "trust", this does not mean that "knowledge and assent" alone does not save - any more than we say that faith alone does not save us. My point, is that just as works are the evidence of faith, so too might trust be considered an evidence of faith. This fits better in the overall scheme of James. Knowledge and assent without trust is dead. Faith without works is dead.
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Old 03-01-2008, 03:40 PM
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Thanks again brother for you reasoned responce. I will try to address some of it now as I only have a short time.
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Thank you for posting a Scriptural argument. This gives us something more substantial to work with.
My pleasure.

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Let me ask you this - if a demon had more than a "bare historical faith", would he be saved? Are there any elect demons? Even if we grant that the demons believe in the whole of the gospel, isn't it also the case that this belief was heart-felt? The demons believed it to the point that they trembled. But can a demon believe the promises to those who believe applies to him?
The text demonstrates the difference between saving and non-saving faith. James is showing that there is a faith (knowledge and assent), that stops short of true faith. This is James' argument, not mine,..
This is the point in contention. It is not a given.

James all along has been speaking of works as proof of true faith. And it appears as if he is saying we are saved by works. However, we know that James is speaking about how true faith is demonstrated by the evidence. We are careful to contend we are saved by faith alone, apart from the works which are the evidence of faith. We need to take that same care as we understand the meaning of faith.

So we still need to determine if Jame's argument is directed at "knowledge and assent" that lacks trust. His point may be not more than a claim to have faith does not make your faith true. And we know that belief in "one God" is only sufficient to damn a person.

But even if James argument was against "knowledge and assent" without "trust", this does not mean that "knowledge and assent" alone does not save - any more than we say that faith alone does not save us. My point, is that just as works are the evidence of faith, so too might trust be considered an evidence of faith. This fits better in the overall scheme of James. Knowledge and assent without trust is dead. Faith without works is dead.


Anthony, the problem exists when we demonize trust and leave it out all together. At times when philosophy gets involved in the discussion too many words are used to explain a simple issue. I am comfortable believeing that belief and assent equals trusting. Therefore belief and assent equal faith. Trust is part of the gift, but I do not see the need to make it a 3rd leg when the 2 we have are strong enough to bolster the weight.
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Old 03-01-2008, 03:50 PM
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Thanks again brother for you reasoned responce. I will try to address some of it now as I only have a short time.
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My pleasure.



The text demonstrates the difference between saving and non-saving faith. James is showing that there is a faith (knowledge and assent), that stops short of true faith. This is James' argument, not mine,..
This is the point in contention. It is not a given.

James all along has been speaking of works as proof of true faith. And it appears as if he is saying we are saved by works. However, we know that James is speaking about how true faith is demonstrated by the evidence. We are careful to contend we are saved by faith alone, apart from the works which are the evidence of faith. We need to take that same care as we understand the meaning of faith.

So we still need to determine if Jame's argument is directed at "knowledge and assent" that lacks trust. His point may be not more than a claim to have faith does not make your faith true. And we know that belief in "one God" is only sufficient to damn a person.

But even if James argument was against "knowledge and assent" without "trust", this does not mean that "knowledge and assent" alone does not save - any more than we say that faith alone does not save us. My point, is that just as works are the evidence of faith, so too might trust be considered an evidence of faith. This fits better in the overall scheme of James. Knowledge and assent without trust is dead. Faith without works is dead.


Anthony, the problem exists when we demonize trust and leave it out all together. At times when philosophy gets involved in the discussion too many words are used to explain a simple issue. I am comfortable believeing that belief and assent equals trusting. Therefore belief and assent equal faith. Trust is part of the gift, but I do not see the need to make it a 3rd leg when the 2 we have are strong enough to bolster the weight.
I suppose it depends on which philosophy is getting in the way. Clark's philosophy is very easy for me to understand. The long lofty lists of figurative language used to describe faith, on the other hand, leave me quite confused, along with the attempts (or lack thereof?) to really define trust in a concrete way as something other than assent.
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Old 03-01-2008, 05:29 PM
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Thanks again brother for you reasoned responce. I will try to address some of it now as I only have a short time.

This is the point in contention. It is not a given.

James all along has been speaking of works as proof of true faith. And it appears as if he is saying we are saved by works. However, we know that James is speaking about how true faith is demonstrated by the evidence. We are careful to contend we are saved by faith alone, apart from the works which are the evidence of faith. We need to take that same care as we understand the meaning of faith.

So we still need to determine if Jame's argument is directed at "knowledge and assent" that lacks trust. His point may be not more than a claim to have faith does not make your faith true. And we know that belief in "one God" is only sufficient to damn a person.

But even if James argument was against "knowledge and assent" without "trust", this does not mean that "knowledge and assent" alone does not save - any more than we say that faith alone does not save us. My point, is that just as works are the evidence of faith, so too might trust be considered an evidence of faith. This fits better in the overall scheme of James. Knowledge and assent without trust is dead. Faith without works is dead.


Anthony, the problem exists when we demonize trust and leave it out all together. At times when philosophy gets involved in the discussion too many words are used to explain a simple issue. I am comfortable believeing that belief and assent equals trusting. Therefore belief and assent equal faith. Trust is part of the gift, but I do not see the need to make it a 3rd leg when the 2 we have are strong enough to bolster the weight.
I suppose it depends on which philosophy is getting in the way. Clark's philosophy is very easy for me to understand. The long lofty lists of figurative language used to describe faith, on the other hand, leave me quite confused, along with the attempts (or lack thereof?) to really define trust in a concrete way as something other than assent.


I meant long sophist words and phrases not contained in the writ. Why it takes this type of language to define the Gospel is beyond me. Different types of latin words created to define this type and that type of arguement. I do not need a discipline of logic to be my rudder David, the writ does just fine. But this is getting off topic.
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Old 03-01-2008, 05:36 PM
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Thanks again brother for you reasoned response. I will try to address some of it now as I only have a short time.
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My pleasure.



The text demonstrates the difference between saving and non-saving faith. James is showing that there is a faith (knowledge and assent), that stops short of true faith. This is James' argument, not mine,..
This is the point in contention. It is not a given.

James all along has been speaking of works as proof of true faith. And it appears as if he is saying we are saved by works. However, we know that James is speaking about how true faith is demonstrated by the evidence. We are careful to contend we are saved by faith alone, apart from the works which are the evidence of faith. We need to take that same care as we understand the meaning of faith.

So we still need to determine if Jame's argument is directed at "knowledge and assent" that lacks trust. His point may be not more than a claim to have faith does not make your faith true. And we know that belief in "one God" is only sufficient to damn a person.

But even if James argument was against "knowledge and assent" without "trust", this does not mean that "knowledge and assent" alone does not save - any more than we say that faith alone does not save us. My point, is that just as works are the evidence of faith, so too might trust be considered an evidence of faith. This fits better in the overall scheme of James. Knowledge and assent without trust is dead. Faith without works is dead.


Anthony, the problem exists when we demonize trust and leave it out all together. At times when philosophy gets involved in the discussion too many words are used to explain a simple issue. I am comfortable believeing that belief and assent equals trusting. Therefore belief and assent equal faith. Trust is part of the gift, but I do not see the need to make it a 3rd leg when the 2 we have are strong enough to bolster the weight.
I agree. We must not leave 'trust' out when we are speaking about faith. But philosophy is part of any discussion. Any time we are trying to understand truth and reality - we bring our philosophical presuppositions with us. And our philosophy should not hinder our understanding. As you point out, some philosophies lead to more confusion than clarity.

I believe the biblical meaning of faith is not complicated - even if it's effects may be. This does not imply we can divorce meaning from effect - but I believe we must not conflate them either. The WCF is an example of this in many ways. For example, it clearly differentiates between sanctification and justification, faith and works, the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit. These are all related, but never identical. If we can not distinguish them, we can never understand how they are related.
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Old 03-02-2008, 04:26 AM
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1. From the previous part of the work we clearly see how completely destitute man is of all good, how devoid of every means of procuring his own salvation. Hence, if he would obtain succour in his necessity, he must go beyond himself, and procure it in some other quarter. It has farther been shown that the Lord kindly and spontaneously manifests himself in Christ, in whom he offers all happiness for our misery, all abundance for our want, opening up the treasures of heaven to us, so that we may turn with full faith to his beloved Son, depend upon him with full expectation, rest in him, and cleave to him with full hope. This, indeed, is that secret and hidden philosophy which cannot be learned by syllogisms: a philosophy thoroughly understood by those whose eyes God has so opened as to see light in his light (Ps. 36:9). But after we have learned by faith to know that whatever is necessary for us or defective in us is supplied in God and in our Lord Jesus Christ, in whom it hath pleased the Father that all fulness should dwell, that we may thence draw as from an inexhaustible fountain, it remains for us to seek and in prayer implore of him what we have learned to be in him.
I would also add there is some misunderstanding being manifest that all these things ought to be plain and easily understood. There are a number of places where the contrary is asserted by Scripture itself. Beware of the philosophy that states it can simplify things where the Scriptures themselves do not promise the same.

Again, the seed of our understanding of faith is enough that we understand that we are like empty vessels who receive Christ or like beggars who cling to Christ but the deeper understandings of these things do not lend themselves to simplistic understandings but are the pursuit of those interested in Wisdom.
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Old 03-02-2008, 05:31 PM
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David and Jeff, maybe this is not directly relevant to the topic of the thread, but the point is that "literal" language isn't. And saying that something isn't understood unless it can be put in literal language is a remarkable illustration of that fact. What does "understand" mean? Is there not a figure contained in that word? And if we vary the word (say to "comprehend" or "apprehend") we have really varied the figure. We have no wholly abstract way of speaking: and this is why it is a dead-end to assume that concrete language gives greater clarity or precision. If it gives the illusion of greater perspicuity that is only because insufficient attention is given to the "literal" words.

However, I don't want to detract from the topic of the thread, which is about the relation of Clark and Clarkians to experimental Calvinism. I do think, though, even a differing perspective on language could be part of the divergent paradigm if Clark or Clarkians are, in fact, not in the stream of experimental Calvinism.
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Old 03-02-2008, 07:44 PM
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I think a lot of times a preference for "literal" language is really nothing more than a preference for one kind of figures over another. See here for more detail, or Owen Barfield, History, Guilt and Habit has some material on this point.
If we take Phil 4:8 as a pattern of believing thought, we see there are different qualities to knowledge. We're not only to reflect on the "true," which might be best expressed in propositional terms, but also the "honest," "just," "pure," "lovely," etc, which all have a language of their own. Expressions which are reverent, moralistic, quaint, paradoxical, picturesque, etc., do not only show the truth of what is known, but bring out other qualities which are just as important. The Proverbs teach us that wisdom operates on a number of different levels. There is more to human life than meets the eye, and it requires reverential and reflective study to understand the height and depth and length and breadth of a knowledge which passes knowledge.
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  #90 (permalink)  
Old 03-02-2008, 07:51 PM
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I think a lot of times a preference for "literal" language is really nothing more than a preference for one kind of figures over another. See here for more detail, or Owen Barfield, History, Guilt and Habit has some material on this point.
If we take Phil 4:8 as a pattern of believing thought, we see there are different qualities to knowledge. We're not only to reflect on the "true," which might be best expressed in propositional terms, but also the "honest," "just," "pure," "lovely," etc, which all have a language of their own. Expressions which are reverent, moralistic, quaint, paradoxical, picturesque, etc., do not only show the truth of what is known, but bring out other qualities which are just as important. The Proverbs teach us that wisdom operates on a number of different levels. There is more to human life than meets the eye, and it requires reverential and reflective study to understand the height and depth and length and breadth of a knowledge which passes knowledge.
Well said! I do have a deep and abiding respect for Clark in many ways, however I think he and Robbins miss the mark completely on faith. Their view is novel at this point and a reaction to the abuse of a thing (over introspection), removing proper "self inspection". Not all subjectivity must be abandoned here, nor trusted.
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Old 03-02-2008, 09:19 PM
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David and Jeff, maybe this is not directly relevant to the topic of the thread, but the point is that "literal" language isn't. And saying that something isn't understood unless it can be put in literal language is a remarkable illustration of that fact. What does "understand" mean? Is there not a figure contained in that word? And if we vary the word (say to "comprehend" or "apprehend") we have really varied the figure. We have no wholly abstract way of speaking: and this is why it is a dead-end to assume that concrete language gives greater clarity or precision. If it gives the illusion of greater perspicuity that is only because insufficient attention is given to the "literal" words.
Again, you're missing the point. No one said that figurative language can't be understood (I didn't, at least). This is the exact opposite of what I said on my last post, when I made the point that literal and figurative language describe the same thing. I understand the phrase "he is green with envy" as well as I understand the phrase "he is jealous."

Would you would explain what you meant when you said that concrete language only gives the illusion of perspicuity? The Confession itself says that some parts of scripture are harder to understand than others. Why do you think that is? Are you saying that it has nothing to do with language? The book of Revelation uses a lot of figurative language and I'm sure that this is partially why it's so hard to understand.
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Old 03-02-2008, 09:52 PM
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Jerrold,
Clark and Robbins view of faith is not novel to them. Clark, in his book, "What is Saving Faith", points out many similar ideas in the thought of men ranging from Augustine to Calvin, including some Puritans and Hodge. He shows that these men will say the same thing when speaking literally but then when they wax figurative confusion begins to grow. Also, read John Brown of Edinburgh's commentaries on Romans, Galatians, Hebrews, and 1Peter and you'll find that he had the same ideas as Clark 100 years before him! Thomas Chalmers wrote similiar things as well. My point is, is that this is not new with Clark and Robbins. They didn't invent these ideas. It seems to me that that notion becomes the reason to dismiss what they are saying without real consideration, a knee jerk reaction by people who are on the opposite side of the GHC/CVT fence.
Jim
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  #93 (permalink)  
Old 03-02-2008, 10:11 PM
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Jerrold,
Clark and Robbins view of faith is not novel to them. Clark, in his book, "What is Saving Faith", points out many similar ideas in the thought of men ranging from Augustine to Calvin, including some Puritans and Hodge. He shows that these men will say the same thing when speaking literally but then when they wax figurative confusion begins to grow. Also, read John Brown of Edinburgh's commentaries on Romans, Galatians, Hebrews, and 1Peter and you'll find that he had the same ideas as Clark 100 years before him! Thomas Chalmers wrote similiar things as well. My point is, is that this is not new with Clark and Robbins. They didn't invent these ideas. It seems to me that that notion becomes the reason to dismiss what they are saying without real consideration, a knee jerk reaction by people who are on the opposite side of the GHC/CVT fence.
Jim
None of the men arguing that they are novel contra the Puritans have, once, referred to CVT on this issue. I find Van Til to be useful in some areas but the issue, as it has been developed here especially by Rev. Winzer, was that the conception of faith is novel with respect to the WCF and the Puritans. I know Rev. Winzer would find it amusing that any would claim his objections have to do with a particular attachment to Van Til. Not every criticism of Clark has to be framed in that context.

Also, I recognize that Clark and Robbins would state that the moment men move to what they consider "inexact" language that they believe no useful information is being added at that point. This, to me, is rather like arguing that God's inclusion of the Proverbs has the same "defect" as didactic clarity is hardly present. As Rev. Winzer just mentioned and I keep re-iterating:
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There is more to human life than meets the eye, and it requires reverential and reflective study to understand the height and depth and length and breadth of a knowledge which passes knowledge.
This "hard path of wisdom" is what we believe ought to be pursued but, in my estimation, Clarkians have decided a priori that this notion simply leads to a "lack of clarity". Hence, it gives warrant to men to quit the pursuit of wisdom at the point they've decided is the terminus. The syllogism alone provides philsophical certainty - Proceed no Further.

Thus, I disagree that we're not taking this into account. We're simply roundly rejecting it as an un-Biblical approach to wisdom. I think the case can be (and has been argued) that this was the Puritan view reflected in the Westminster Standards and the Directory. I have seen several assertions that some men believed the contrary but I have not seen any material presented that convinces me this is anything but assertion.
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Old 03-03-2008, 12:41 AM
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Jerrold,
Clark and Robbins view of faith is not novel to them. Clark, in his book, "What is Saving Faith", points out many similar ideas in the thought of men ranging from Augustine to Calvin, including some Puritans and Hodge. He shows that these men will say the same thing when speaking literally but then when they wax figurative confusion begins to grow. Also, read John Brown of Edinburgh's commentaries on Romans, Galatians, Hebrews, and 1Peter and you'll find that he had the same ideas as Clark 100 years before him! Thomas Chalmers wrote similiar things as well. My point is, is that this is not new with Clark and Robbins. They didn't invent these ideas. It seems to me that that notion becomes the reason to dismiss what they are saying without real consideration, a knee jerk reaction by people who are on the opposite side of the GHC/CVT fence.
Jim

Dear Jim,

First, I do not have a dog in the CVT/GHC hunt. Experiential Calvinism was around long before the 1950's. Second, I think if you will scroll back and read my responses to Anthony, you will find then quite reasonable. I dine on the Puritans morning and night. I'd say I'm a bit more than "functional" on Scottish Divines. I stand by my belief that Clark's view of saving faith is novel as per the Westminster Standards.

Blessings!
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Old 03-03-2008, 09:35 AM
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Here's another article that touches on the same issue.

The White Horse Inn: Nonsense on Tap
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Chris Poe--Attending Grace Community Baptist Church, Mandeville, LA

"There never was a man in the world without a creed. What is a creed? A creed is what you believe. What is a confession? It is a declaration of what you believe. That declaration may be oral or it may be committed to writing, but the creed is there either expressed or implied."—B.H. Carroll

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