Thread: What is the imperative for Hebrew?

This comes up because of an interesting question ... why do we call "the Ten Commandments" commandments? (I'm not saying they are suggestions, but possibly something else?)

Neither the Septuagint and Vulgate (which have imperatives) translate the words of Exo or Deut as imperatives ... which then leads to the question of why we call them commandments. I've been told the Hebrew also is not in the tense that would be imperative. So when did they start getting called commandments, and why? (What would be the exegetical reason for this?)

The alternative might be "this is what you will be" (a declaration of future state?)

If you saw a sign saying "there shall be no smoking," wouldn't that sound like a command to you? It's essentially the same thing.

To speak a command by way of a future indicative statement expresses a sort of superadded authority to the speaker. For instance, if a parent says to a child, "You will go upstairs and do your homework right now..." not only is the command itself stated (implicitly), but further is explicitly expressed the extent of the speaker's authority in the certainty of the outcome: "You will do your homework. How do I know this future event? Because I am your father, and I have told you to do it; and since my authority is supreme, is there any other possible outcome to my giving this command?"

The points that have been made are excellent!

Grammatically, the future tense can likewise carry an imperative import, as has been stated. This is true in Greek and Hebrew as well as English.

Likewise, from other portions of Scripture, the 10 Commandments are referred to as Commandments:

Exodus 34:28 And he was there with the LORD forty days and forty nights; he did neither eat bread, nor drink water. And he wrote upon the tables the words of the covenant, the ten commandments.

Note: I realize that this is an interpretation of the "Debariim" and "logoi" of the Hebrew and LXX.

Cheers,

Brian Withnell,

I've been told the Hebrew also is not in the tense that would be imperative.

True, but Hebrew does not form prohibitions with the imperative, and has multiple ways of stating positive commands.

For Hebrew, you can have either a weak prohibition, which is formed by the Hebrew term 'al+jussive, or you can find a strong prohibition which is formed by the Hebrew lo'+imperfect [which is what we find in the Ten Commandments]. Waltke and O'Connor have a section on this in their grammar §31.5d §34.2.1b.

Also, Hebrew can form commands by the use of an infinitive absolute [see Waltke O'Connor §35.5.1]. My undergrad professor used to call the infinitive absolute a "wild card," since it can function in so many different ways. This is what is going on in the two positive commands to keep the sabbath, and to honor your parents.

Mark 10 and Luke 18: "You know the commandments: ‘Do not murder, Do not commit adultery, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Do not defraud, Honor your father and mother.’”

Can't comment on the Greek, but there's the ESV!