Jeremiah's New Covenant and the New Testament

Sydnorphyn · #1 (**permalink**) 06-10-2007, 06:59 PM

Good evening:

Does the fact that the NC is cited (echoed, cited and alluded to [see Hays for the difference between these terms - Echoes of Scripture in the Letters of Paul, Yale press]) in the NT suggest that the people of the NT are being viewed as the post-exilic community metaphorically benefiting from the realities of Jeremiah's New Covenant? The context of Jeremiah 30-33 and other non-specific NC texts (Ezek. 36-37- alluded to in John 3.1-8) are in exilic, post-exilic contexts. Does this context "carryover" into the NT? Is the reality of our existence defined by the community of Ezra-Nehemiah (see Neh. 9. 38ff.). Is the community of the Messiah the post-exilic community that experiences the 2nd exodus in the Resurrection of the Lord's Christ (see Hoses 6.1-3, cf. Jonah 2.1 [Heb. 1.17]), Matthew 12 - the sign of Jonah. Sorry for all the detail, my zeal got the best of me.

Thanks in advance
Ad Fontes

Iconoclast · #2 (**permalink**) 06-10-2007, 11:34 PM

[quote=Sydnorphyn;277230]Good evening:

Does the fact that the NC is cited (echoed, cited and alluded to [see Hays for the difference between these terms - Echoes of Scripture in the Letters of Paul, Yale press]) in the NT suggest that the people of the NT are being viewed as the post-exilic community metaphorically benefiting from the realities of Jeremiah's New Covenant? The context of Jeremiah 30-33 and other non-specific NC texts (Ezek. 36-37- alluded to in John 3.1-8) are in exilic, post-exilic contexts. Does this context "carryover" into the NT? Is the reality of our existence defined by the community of Ezra-Nehemiah (see Neh. 9. 38ff.). Is the community of the Messiah the post-exilic community that experiences the 2nd exodus in the Resurrection of the Lord's Christ (see Hoses 6.1-3, cf. Jonah 2.1 [Heb. 1.17]), Matthew 12 - the sign of Jonah. Sorry for all the detail, my zeal got the best of me.

Thanks in advance

If I understand your question correctly,I would say yes.

Early on in the gospels at the revelation of the incarnate Christ we read in Mt:2:15 a quote from Hosea 11:1 out of egypt I have called My Son,followed by a quote from Jer 31:15, in Mt.2:17-18. Why else would these verses be offered?
Then there is a progressive revelation of Jesus as the true manna Jn 6;32-58, the True tabernacle Heb.8:2. all of the Ot.types fulfilled in Jesus.
The explanation of Christ as the end of the law for righteousness Rom.10:4-13, Paul quoting from Deut.30:12 speaking of the living word as our mediator.
In Hebrews 3;1-6, Moses faithful in his house, but Christ over the whole house. Moses gives way to Joshua in the OT. The law is a schoolmaster to lead us to Christ in Galatians 3:24-29. It is everywhere consistently spoken of. Gal.4:21-31 Gal.6:14-17.Eph.2;10-22
Is this what you were asking about or did I misunderstand your question?:
Let me know.

Sydnorphyn · #3 (**permalink**) 06-11-2007, 05:48 AM

Anthony

You are on to it; it seems to me that exegete's have for too long separated the Testaments, context-carryover seems to answer the question.

May we be found faithful as we wait for the final redemption - the final stage of the 2nd exodus.

grace and peace