This post is about the interpretation of εν Χριστω in the Pauline corpus, but especially in Eph. 4:32. Specifically:

1) Does εν Χριστω sometimes or always carry a specialized theological meaning in the Pauline writings?

2) On the basis of the answer to #1, plus contextual factors, is there any warrant for the KJV's rendering of "for Christ's sake" in Eph. 4:32?

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Charlie Johnson
Downtown Presbyterian Church (PCA)
Greenville Presbyterian Theological Seminary, student

Though both translations "in Christ" and "for Christ's sake" are orthodox in teaching, the "in Christ" is a better translation of the Greek.

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Larry Bray
Elder - Reformed Presbyterian Church of Boothwyn, PCA
Boothwyn, PA - http://www.rpcb.org/
Free Online Reformed Seminary - http://www.tnars.net
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Christian ritual costs nothing and is worth nothing. True Christian religion costs all that we have and is worth everything.

The phrase εν Χριστω is used at least 9 times in Ephesians and more than seventy times in the N.T. It most often speaks of our positional standing of "union with Christ" and is the basis not only of our blessings but also of the power for carrying out the imperatives of Christian duty.

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Bob, elder, RBC Louisville. 1689 LBCF

"... Of such also, or of those who make a credible profession of being such, all those particular churches consist, which constitute our Lord's visible kingdom. ... Consequently, all the subjects of His government must have spiritual dispositions, , and yield spiritual obedience- obedience proceeding from an enlightened understanding, an awakened conscience, and a renewed heart."- Abraham Booth 1788