See the top rated post in this thread. Click here

Results 1 to 4 of 4

Theological Forum discuss What is and is not conditional regarding God and His law. in the Theology forums; ...

  1. #1
    J. Dean's Avatar
    J. Dean is offline. Puritanboard Junior
    Join Date
    May 2011
    Posts
    1,396

    What is and is not conditional regarding God and His law.

    Apparently a professor at Knox Theological Seminary is working through this: God’s conditional and His unconditional Words

    I confess to not knowing a great deal about KTS or Mr Linebaugh (I had to do a double take on his last name there), but the article was interesting. Note this phrase coming from the article:

    This is why, for Luther, the phrase “the third use of the Law” (i.e. a use of the Law after the gospel and thus unique to Christians) is a category mistake. For him, as suggested above, Law names the divine speech that accuses and kills. Cut off from its conditionality and kicked out of the Christian’s conscience, a commandment is not Law in the theological sense. This does not mean that Luther didn’t think those portions of scripture that we think of as Law should be preached to Christians; he emphatically did (as his disputations against the Antinomians and his expositions of the Ten Commandments in the Catechisms demonstrate). But it does mean that “Law” is a slightly misleading term in this context because Law, for Luther, is defined by its “chief and proper use” which is “to reveal sin” and function as a “Hercules to attack and subdue the monster” of self-righteousness (Galatians 1535).
    J. Dean, author
    EPC
    Flint, Michigan

    “If your preaching of the gospel of God's free grace in Jesus Christ does not provoke the charge from some of antinomianism, you're not preaching the gospel of the free grace of God in Jesus Christ.”
    ― D. Martyn Lloyd-Jones

  2. #2
    Joshua is offline. _
    Join Date
    May 2003
    Posts
    20,386
    Blog Entries
    3
    I'm not precisely sure what is being asked, but I think our standards do a succinct and satisfying job in defining how the Law in the Covenant of Works is distinguished to the Elect as under the Covenant of Grace. Salvation under the Covenant of Works is by keeping the stipulations God has set therein. Under the Covenant of Grace, salvation is still by keeping the stipulations God has set, the difference being that what Adam could/did not do for us (keep the stipulations), Christ has, and the Covenant of Grace was made with Christ, with all the elect in Him as His seed. We procure the benefits of His covenant-keeping and perfect atoning sacrifice. If we would but keep that understanding, as well as be familiar with our standards (for example, in what is listed below), we'll not emphasize the 3rd Use of the Law over and against the purity of the Gospel. The two are not competitors.

    WCF 19

    V. The moral law doth forever bind all, as well justified persons as others, to the obedience thereof;a and that not only in regard of the matter contained in it, but also in respect of the authority of God the Creator who gave it.b Neither doth Christ in the gospel any way dissolve, but much strengthen, this obligation.c

    VI. Although true believers be not under the law as a covenant of works, to be thereby justified or condemned;a yet is it of great use to them, as well as to others; in that, as a rule of life, informing them of the will of God and their duty, it directs and binds them to walk accordingly;b discovering also the sinful pollutions of their nature, hearts, and lives;c so as, examining themselves thereby, they may come to further conviction of, humiliation for, and hatred against sin;d together with a clearer sight of the need they have of Christ, and the perfection of his obedience.e It is likewise of use to the regenerate, to restrain their corruptions, in that it forbids sin;f and the threatenings of it serve to show what even their sins deserve, and what afflictions in this life they may expect for them, although freed from the curse thereof threatened in the law.g The promises of it, in like manner, show them God’s approbation of obedience, and what blessings they may expect upon the performance thereof;h although not as due to them by the law as a covenant of works:i so as a man’s doing good, and refraining from evil, because the law encourageth to the one, and deterreth from the other, is no evidence of his being under the law, and not under grace.j
    Josh
    CCRPC, RPCGA
    The Lord doth build up Jerusalem: he gathereth together the outcasts of Israel. He healeth the broken in heart, and bindeth up their wounds. - Ps. 147
    1 member(s) found this post helpful.

  3. #3
    J. Dean's Avatar
    J. Dean is offline. Puritanboard Junior
    Join Date
    May 2011
    Posts
    1,396
    That's basically what I figured, Joshua. The 3rd use of the law can be in one sense the trickiest one to apply.
    J. Dean, author
    EPC
    Flint, Michigan

    “If your preaching of the gospel of God's free grace in Jesus Christ does not provoke the charge from some of antinomianism, you're not preaching the gospel of the free grace of God in Jesus Christ.”
    ― D. Martyn Lloyd-Jones

  4. #4
    jwright82's Avatar
    jwright82 is offline. Puritanboard Senior
    Join Date
    Jan 2010
    Posts
    2,269
    What effect does this article have in the whole debate between Lutherans and Reformed on the law/gospel distinction? Are both sides talking different ways about the same thing then?
    James
    Pinewood Presbyterian church (PCA)
    Jacksonville, FL
    My blog: http://thereformedcafe.wordpress.com/.

Bookmarks

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •  

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72