
Originally Posted by
Confessor
This seems like a pretty basic question, but from what I have briefly looked up I have not found a consensus. It seems that some sources, perhaps unwittingly, treat them as identical, whereas other sources assert that they are different but extremely close.
So, are they different, and if so, how? Here's the appropriate paragraph from the WCF:
CHAPTER X.
Of Effectual Calling.
I. All those whom God hath predestinated unto life, and those only, he is pleased, in his appointed and accepted time, effectually to call, by his Word and Spirit, out of that state of sin and death in which they are by nature, to grace and salvation by Jesus Christ: enlightening their minds, spiritually and savingly, to understand the things of God, taking away their heart of stone, and giving unto them an heart of flesh; renewing their wills, and by his almighty power determining them to that which is good; and effectually drawing them to Jesus Christ; yet so as they come most freely, being made willing by his grace.
Is there any difference of intent contained within the "Ordis Salutis?" (Romans 8:29-30)
Ronda Rush
Church of the Redeemer
Independent Reformed
California
"Our existence in the mind of God puts us in contact with the Ideas in the mind of God, and not simply, 'in the mind of man.'" Gordon H. Clark
Bookmarks