Element of Song and Imperative Command

Coram Deo · #1 (**permalink**) 09-18-2007, 07:34 PM

Debating the Regulative Principle and Exclusive Psalmody with a Pastor Friend and I gave him a 4 part sermon series from G.I Williamson and he said the following..

"Also, Williamson doesn't even acknowledge the simple reality that "singing to yourself in songs, hymns and spiritual songs" is not in the imperative unlike the command not to get drunk with wine right before it. Would turning a non-imperative into an imperative be adding to the word of God? "

How would you respond to this?

**armourbearer** · #2 (**permalink**) 09-18-2007, 07:47 PM

Exegetically, the present active participle indicates the means of fulfilling the present passive imperative, or it might refer to the outworking of it. Either way, the imperative carries through in the subsequent verbs, as in Matt. 28:19, 20. Theologically, approved example carries the same "regulative" import as specific precept. Because the apostolic church is our model of worship, it only needs to be shown that an element of worship was practised with apostolic approval by the early church in order to mandate its use.

Coram Deo · #3 (**permalink**) 09-19-2007, 10:55 AM

That was very helpful and makes total sense...... That was exactly what I was looking for... Thank you very much....

Quote:

Originally Posted by armourbearer

Exegetically, the present active participle indicates the means of fulfilling the present passive imperative, or it might refer to the outworking of it. Either way, the imperative carries through in the subsequent verbs, as in Matt. 28:19, 20. Theologically, approved example carries the same "regulative" import as specific precept. Because the apostolic church is our model of worship, it only needs to be shown that an element of worship was practised with apostolic approval by the early church in order to mandate its use.