Saying "Either my interpretation is correct or God is lying" is of course stupid, and I should have worded it differently.
But OK
Who was the sign supposed to go to?
Answer: The house of David. You can compare scripture and show it couldn't have been talking about the king as the age of son was such that it is clear he was already born at that time.
And why would a child born to Isaiah have been a sign to the house of David? Also
Quote:
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14Therefore the Lord Himself giveth to you a sign, Lo, the Virgin is conceiving, And is bringing forth a son, And hath called his name Immanuel,
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How can a virgin bring forth a son? (BTW wasn't one of Isaiah's sons with him during his meeting with the king?)