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Juice · #13 (**permalink**) 03-02-2005, 10:37 PM

Hmmmmmm. So are you saying that if the prophecy in Is. 7:14-16 is in any way fulfilled in Is. 8 then it implies that the Holy Spirit is lying? The vast majority of scholars agree that Is. 8 was, at least in some way, a fulfillment of Is. 7.

I'm just trying to get as close as possible to a consistent hermenutic for how to interpret the OT. I think the best argument I've seen is the type/antitype way of interpreting this passage, but I don't think it is intellectually honest to say that it was in no way fulfilled in Isaiah's time.

I know that Matt. is quoting from the septuigent, and I agree with the previous posts inregards to the quote having a virgin in mind. I believe the woman was a virgin (before Isaiah knew her) and I believe that Mary was a virgin and since Jesus was the Son of God she was still a virgin after she gave birth to Jesus. So Isaiah's wife is the type, while Jesus was the antitype.

However, I don't think you can say that Isaiah 7:14-16 is speaking solely of Christ and is a prophecy in the sense of a single fulfillment in Christ alone, because it was fulfilled in a *sense* in (and by) Isaiah.