I'm guessing that the translators translated it that way because they weren't Puritans. Thanks to nearly 1600 years of church tradition and practice concerning the subject, they just presumed that "Easter" was what the text was referring to. After all, in Eastern Orthodoxy their "Easter" is "Pascha."

Of course, just because we have Paschal homilies dating further back than the first explicit references to paedobaptism doesn't prove that a special Sunday commemorating the Lord's resurrection as a "holy day" was apostolic... nor biblical.

Something can be ancient in practice, but without biblical warrant... it needs to be discarded. (Though translating it as "Easter" would give the appearance of warrant to the English Bible reader, wouldn't it? That's why we must know Greek!)

__________________
Ben
Chaplain, US Army
Ft. Riley, KS
TE Ohio Valley Presbytery, PCA