I'm sure they at least had a reason for thus translating it; we might disagree with it, but these translators were not foolish men, or given to strange translations. Someone more versed in translation history (or AV exegesis) might be able to disagree with this and point out something more accurate, but I suspect it may have something to do with Tyndale, The Bishops Bible, Coverdale and the Great Bible, all of which read "Easter." (perhaps others? Also, it should be noted this phenomenon was not limited to English translations--so Luther, "...ihn nach Ostern dem Volk vorzustellen."). The translation of "Easter" had a respectable pedigree in English Bibles, and we know that the KJ translators took previous translations into account. You might be interested in noting certain passages, such as 1 Co. 5:7, which refers to "Christ our Easter lamb" in Tyndale

I have heard some explain that many of these old translations would attempt to translate pascha as Easter when it referred to its Christian signification post-resurrection. Someone more knowledgeable, again, can confirm or deny this.

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Paul Korte
OPC
Flint, MI

They who perceive in themselves discoveries of the divine goodness, so full and absolutely perfect, and who make them the subject of earnest meditation, will never embrace new doctrines, by which the very grace they feel so powerfully in themselves is thrown into the shade. --John Calvin

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