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Old 02-26-2009, 07:18 PM
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DMcFadden DMcFadden is offline.
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Steve,

The realization that the CT text that we possess does not purport to be (and, indeed, probably cannot be) an actual copy of any manuscript that has ever existed coupled with the thought that the antiquity of Byzantine readings has much firmer support than my profs led me to believe 35 years ago, combine to leave my mind reeling.

While, unless one takes a KJV-only position, they are left with a "provisional" confidence in the exactitude of the text before them, that need not be an insurmountable hurdle. The Alexandrian texts and the Byzantine texts do not differ enough to change a single Christian doctrine. That is a solid enough foundation for me. Beyond that, I want to follow the manuscripts to the most faithfully exact outcome possible this side of the eschaton. Your bibliography has caused me to wonder if my answer may be more in the Byzantine than the Alexandrian mss. However, the exalted claims of the TR folk generally scare me to death.
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