|
I guess it could have been a civil or ceremonial law. I guess the notion is that if it was one of those it either pertained to the formation of the nation of Israel or pointed to Christ and therefore would not be necessary in either case. But if it was given to Adam prior to falling, as sort of a mandate, then it would not be fulfilled by anything. It would be like saying that marriage or labor could be fulfilled. If it has an eschatological aspect then it is still pointing to the fulfillment after the Second Coming.
If Vos is right in that it has an eschatological aspect and was given to Adam prior to falling, what does that say about the plan of God and the Fall.
|