My dear brother Steve,
Someone recently made me aware of your post, and I've genuinely enjoyed reading it. I think you've offered one of the most comprehensive answers to my initial question (How does a Paedo-Baptist interpret this text?) and well-thought rejoinders to my Credo-Baptist exposition and application of the passage to the question of infant baptism. I sincerely commend you, and I think I owe you a response, especially since you evidently put some time and prayer into this post.
Unfortunately, I've become backlogged with seminary, church, and family responsibilities (having been gone for a week). Moreover, I still have some unfinished business on another thread on the PB, as well as replies to posts on other discussion lists to which I subscribe. Additionally, I want to give your argument careful and prayerful reflection before replying. In the meantime, my fellow RB brothers are welcome to chime in. Also, I've posted my exposition and application of John 1:12-13 on
RBS Tabletalk and give you permission to paste your post as a comment or add the link to this cite.
Your brother in Christ,