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Old 09-13-2008, 09:17 PM
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brianeschen brianeschen is offline.
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Originally Posted by Ex Nihilo View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pergamum View Post
Evie: Not sure, you might have a point.
Thank you! I also agree with your earlier point that one of the purposes of execution in the OT law was to purify God's people. God's people is now the church, not a political state, and purification is accomplished through excommunication. Is it as necessary for a political state that isn't synonymous with God's people to clear the unrighteous out of the land? I really don't think so -- the unchurched members of a secular state are not even purportedly God's people. Their sin offends His righteousness, but since they do not represent Him and are not set apart to Him, maybe their behavior is less of an affront. (On the other hand, I am thinking about the command for the Israelites to kill the unrighteous pagans in the land.)

I also question whether the didactic purpose of execution is as important now that the church, distinct from the state, is responsible for theological teaching. I am certain that the OT law has something to show us today about justice, but of course the change in application now that the state is no longer a gatekeeper of God's people is the confusing part.
It is my understanding that even in the Old Testament the church and state were separate jurisdictions. Remember, Uzziah was condemned for burning incense (2 Ch. 26)?
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