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Old 08-02-2008, 11:12 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JohnV View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by timmopussycat View Post
To answer your question 3, I would say no, for it is clear that whatever else may be said the apostle Paul tells us to sing psalms.
That's right, he does. If I told you to sing the Dutch national anthem (supposing you were a complete stranger to it) would you be able to do it? You can't obey a commandment if you don't know how to go about it.
Although I am presently ignorant of the text and music of that anthem, if you give them to me I could sing it to you within 5 minutes. But I am a trained musician. I know how to sing and I know how to hear and mimic words in foreign languages. Most Christians in most NA churches could follow the melody line of that anthem even if they couldn't pronounce the words correctly.

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Originally Posted by JohnV View Post
So, I command you to sing the Psalms. So, go ahead, do it. Remove all twentieth century context and obey Paul's command here. Can you do it? I didn't think so. Very few can. So what does this commandment mean? Is it like giving a prescription without giving a dosage amount? Would not the word "prescription" instead of "command" lead to the same thing, an inability to fill it? What does it mean that we are told to sing psalms?

Now, for North Americans the Psalms must usually be sung in English translation since the Apostle commands all things to be done unto edifying and it is harder to edify oneself or others if one is trying to translate as well as listen at the same time. So learning the words is no problem.

The biblical psalms are given to us in text only. Which means we have complete and total liberty in the musical settings we choose, save only that the setting we use must not obscure the text for the hearers. If I am alone I might listen to a 4 part fugue setting of a psalm, in most churches at most times I would prefer to encounter a single melody line setting because that would be within the singing capacity of the average church.

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Originally Posted by JohnV View Post
I'm not saying that "prescription" is either right or wrong. I'm supposing that God tells us to sing our praises, and not only just to say them; and that He tells us that He accepts the expression of music as praise, and that this too is worship. Right or wrong, I'm presupposing it. Let's explore this outside the context of defending what I'm presupposing. Hopefully it will help us to use our terms better, in a more wholesome context, and in a less confusing way. I mean, when we discuss with EP people they will better understand what we're saying, instead of imputing things to our words which we never intended. And the same goes the other way around, we'll understand them better too without improber imputations. Otherwise we'll just continue to talk past each other. I'm thinking that the term "prescription" might also serve to misdirect out intentions and meanings instead of clarifying them. After all, you don't find it in the Confessions in that context.
I don't see the difference between prescription and presupposing that God has commanded sung praise, but if you do, I'll use your term and avoid confusion by trying to argue for mine.
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In Christ's love and service

Mr. Tim Cunningham,
BMus. (Trombone Performance), University of Toronto
Dip. CS, Regent College, Vancouver
Member, First Baptist Church
Vancouver, BC
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"I once sat in darkness, and waited for the moon to rise.
I once sat in darkness, and waited for the son to shine.
I once sat in darkness, when all the light I'd waited for was gone.
Then Jesus came, and now the only true light, ever, shines in me."
– John Deacon -