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1) Aquinas, as many others of the time, used the phrase "of the Jews" to describe the old economy.
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He didn't say "of the Jews" - he said
in fear of imitating the Jews. That is, to draw a distinction between Christian and Jewish practice, just as the early church fathers banned instruments in worship in fear of imitating the Greeks. As far as I could see, he didn't give any scriptural support for his fear.