View Single Post
  #6 (permalink)  
Old 07-11-2008, 02:17 PM
R Harris's Avatar
R Harris R Harris is offline.
Puritanboard Freshman
 
Join Date: Feb 2008
Location: Oklahoma City, OK
Posts: 399
Thanks: 131
Thanked 197 Times in 89 Posts
Quote:
Originally Posted by Zenas View Post
It has to because of the logical operation of disjunction.

If Christ died for all men, then either all men are then saved or Christ is a failure.
Christ is not a failure.
All men are saved.

Any Arminian I have met will refuse to listen to this logic, and will refuse to give any answer. I only assume they will answer like the above. The alternative is:

If Christ died for all men, then either all men are then saved or Christ is a failure.
All men are not saved.
Christ is a failure.
Owen in The Death of Death basically put it this way: If Christ died for the sins of all men, then necessarily he also died for their sin of unbelief. Thus, the universal salvation, as the title for this thread states.

If he did not die for the sin of unbelief, then how can you set the point for what sins he did or did not die for?
__________________
Randy Harris
Heritage PCA Church
Oklahoma City, OK
The Following User Says Thank You to R Harris For This Useful Post:
Backwoods Presbyterian (07-11-2008)