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Old 07-09-2008, 08:04 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gomarus View Post
The logic here clearly indicates that all infants (not merely elect infants) are "are under the grace of God through Christ" since no infant can willfully sin. I see this as undermining the doctrine of original sin and/or the atonement.
Why? I have asserted that all infants fall under original sin. Christ died for the sins of those He loves. He loved and blessed infants and did not tell them to believe, repent and sin no more, in fact He said of such is the kingdom of Heaven. Is that not a sign of His grace toward infants?

Quote:
If you are saying that only elect infants are under Christ, then your whole argument reduces to circular reasoning -- that all elect dying in infancy are elect. Which does not indicate that all dying in infancy are elect.

I think I just have trouble following your thinking.
God elects those He loves.

Jesus loves and does not rebuke infants/little children in infancy. ("of such is the Kingdom of Heaven" - see also: Matthew 11:25, Matthew 21:16, Luke 10:21)

God elects infants/little children that die in infancy.
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