I was wondering if/when infants may have been ceremonially washed/sprinkled/baptised under the Old Covenant. (I'm just looking for answers and don't have any arguments to make, but haven't posted this in the paedobaptism answers forum because some of the baptists are very knowledgeable in this area as well).

I have read and reread the information Dennis posted about proselyte baptisms, and later proselyte practices is not really what I am asking about at this time. I am unfortunately not well enough versed in my old Testament to know offhand where to look for information about when infants may have been ceremonially washed, except for the references in Ezekiel about the child who is not cleansed (and I'm not sure if this is referring to ceremonial washings that the Jews would have recognized as such, or drawing an analogy with an unnceremonial washing that happens after every birth).

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Heidi
Indianapolis, Indiana

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