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Originally Posted by Reformed Christian  Thoughts? |
Yes. In 1 Cor. 11, the apostle states that they were not coming together to partake of the Lord's supper. Hence however often they did it -- it might have been daily -- their practice gives no indication of frequency of communion. I'm inclined to think that the apostle was describing the agape feast, and his instructions require them to have this at home. In Acts 20:7 there is a clear example of seasonal communion around the time of unleavened bread. It is a one off occasion and the text specifically states that they met for the purpose of breaking bread. Concerning the assumption that the Christians would have observed the Supper when they came together, that is the point to be proved. As baptism was not an essential element, 1 Cor. 1:17, there is no reason to believe that the Lord's supper would have been considered such. As for the Didache, it is not apostolic; but if it were, it still doesn't require weekly communion, but the breaking of bread on a specific day of the week, called the Lord's own day.