06-28-2008, 05:31 AM
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 CT and Dispensational theories
Quote:
Originally Posted by PuritanCovenanter  I think he is a bit confused on how terminology is used. But here is the Westminster Chapter 7.6 Quote: |
7:6 Under the gospel, when Christ, the substance (Gal_2:17), was exhibited, the ordinances in which this covenant is dispensed are the preaching of the Word, and the administration of the sacraments of Baptism and the Lord’s Supper (Mat_28:19, Mat_28:20; 1Co_11:23-25): which, though fewer in number, and administered with more simplicity, and less outward glory; yet, in them, it is held forth in more fulness, evidence, and spiritual efficacy (Jer_31:33, Jer_31:34; Heb_12:22-28), to all nations, both Jews and Gentiles; and is called the New Testament. There are not therefore two covenants of grace, differing in substance, but one and the same, under various dispensations (Psa_32:1; Act_15:11; Rom_3:21-23; Rom_4:3, Rom_4:6, Rom_4:16, Rom_4:17, Rom_4:23, Rom_4:24; Gal_3:14, Gal_3:16; Heb_13:8).
| Check out some of the works that commentate on this section. | I think the way in which my fellow friend is using dispensation is totally different from the way the WCF is using it here. In this case, a dispensation is a period of covenant in administration executed (e.g., Adam, Abraham, Moses, etc.). I think he's playing with terms. However, he did say that God changes his plan, thus referring to a Dispensational[ism] notion, yet trying to be covenantal too.  . Makes no sense to me.
CT and Dispensational Thought
__________________ Julio Martinez, Jr.
Member of the Presbyterian Church in America (PCA) My Blog, called Ecclesia Reformata est Semper Reformanda (L. The Reformed Church is always reforming) "My people are destroyed for lack of knowledge;
because you have rejected knowledge,
I reject you from being a priest to me.
And since you have forgotten the law of your God,
I also will forget your children." Hosea 4:6, ESV
Last edited by jmartinez83; 06-28-2008 at 05:47 AM..
Reason: Grammar
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