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Old 06-26-2008, 12:31 AM
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danmpem danmpem is offline.
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Paedobaptism & the Covenants of God

This is from the "a non-argumentative question for paedobaptists" thread.

Quote:
Originally Posted by larryjf View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by a mere housewife View Post
how can we make an assumption that baptism should be administered in the same way as circumcision when girls are now baptised?
We must look at the history of Redemption, and how it becomes more expansive to answer your question.

The Covenant of Grace has gone through an ever-widening scope until the consummation in Christ when the whole world is in God's redemptive focus.

Abraham (man) --> Jacob (family) --> Moses (nation) --> David (kingdom) --> Christ (world)

So yes, under Christ even females are brought into the covenant sign because the scope was widened to include all types of people from every nation.

But to suggest that children would no longer be included would be to suggest that the covenant did not expand, but in fact the scope was restricted further in the NT than in the OT.
I didn't understand the last paragraph. Could you expand on that further?

Also, how is the kingdom of David different from the nation of Moses? At the beginning of David's reign, wasn't he only king of Judah? And then, I think it was later he was king of all Israel. He was also called "king of Jerusalem". Is there any relevance between the three distinct titles and the covenant with David?

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Member, First Baptist Church San Luis Obispo
Formerly ABUSA (We left, so I guess that makes us American Baptists Unleashed!)