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Originally Posted by a mere housewife  So then, if I'm understanding correctly, the warrant for believing that the representative principle is expanded to females rather than done away is because of the passage Rev. Winzer cited from 1 Cor about ceremonial headship, and also because circumcision is seen as equaling baptism in other respects? |
There is more detail that could be added, but the fact that circumcision and baptism represent the same benefits of the covenant of grace, and the New Testament includes females in the covenant sign, are a good starting point.