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Old 06-24-2008, 03:17 PM
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Hippo Hippo is offline.
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilgrim View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hippo View Post
I can see why Baptist churches would not see infant baptism as baptism and would require a believers baptism for membership or communion. Such a position is logical and consistent with their teachings.

What I have a difficulty with is requiring a baptism by immersion where the persons previous baptism was as an adult on profession of faith but by sprinkling.

Is this inisistance (rather than a strong preference) on immersion widespread or even universal?

Can this practice be defended as anything other than sectarian?
It is often regarded as sectarian by non-Baptists, but from the Baptist point of view there is no baptism unless it is by immersion.
Firstly how widespread is this position and secondly why is the mode seen as of critical importance, without the possibility of differing interpretations?
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"Surely, we wish to be orthodox, but we must first learn what real orthodoxy is. Surely, we wish to be progressive, but we must first have a basis to progress from."