Quote:
Originally Posted by panta dokimazete  I thought this was interesting from John Piper: Quote: |
2.2. In the middle of the qualifications for deacons in 1 Timothy 3:8–13, Paul says, "The women likewise must be serious, no slanderers, but temperate, faithful in all things." This could be the wives of the deacons, but could also be the women deacons. The latter is suggested by the fact that the elders' wives are not mentioned in 3:1–7.
| from here |
There are three reasons I think this is incorrect:
First, the elders' wives are not mentioned because they are not as "directly and extensively involved" in their husbands ministry as the wives of deacons. I don't mean that elders' wives are not a help to them. But how often does an elder ask his wife what the meaning of a passage is? How often does an elder ask his wife's input to case of discipline before they are made public? How often do deacon's wives help them to minister to the congregation?
Second, if deacon's were both men and women, then why would Paul address "women deacons" seperately?
Third, if he were to address "women deacons", why would he do it in the middle of his address to the male deacons?
AV1611 linked to an
OPC report that gives some additional reasons that argue against Piper's position.