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Originally Posted by AV1611  Quote:
Originally Posted by Daniel Ritchie Quote: |
Originally Posted by AV1611 If it was not wrong for Israel to set aside a time of thanksgiving for God's providential goodness at harvest then how can it be wrong for the church to set aside a time of thanksgiving for God's providential goodness at harvest? | Maybe it's not. | If it is not wrong for the church to set aside a time of thanksgiving for God's providential goodness at harvest then how can it be wrong for the church to set aside a time of thanksgiving for God's love demonstrated through the birth of Christ?
"And the angel said unto them, Fear not: for, behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to all people. Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace, good will toward men." ( Luke 2:10, 14) Quote: |
Originally Posted by Daniel Ritchie The RPW does not only refer to explicit commands but legitimate historical examples (i.e. synagogue attendance). People who make this kind of criticism do not realize that every command did not have to be explicitly written down, as legitimate historical examples are Biblically sufficient to show us that something is acceptable. | How do you know that Easter was not commanded, but the command was not explicitly recorded - i.e. it was something based on a legitimate historical example? |
Point 1 - we celebrate events in the life of Christ every Lord's Day, therefore, there is no need to have different holy days to celebrate them. 52 holy days a year is enough. Moreover, on what authority do you presume to impose the observance of such festivals upon my conscience? Are you saying that I am sinning by refusing to observe them and by spending my time in dominion duties?
Point 2 - since there is not record of Easter being observed by the apostles, it is not a legitimate historical example. Easter (Passover) has been replaced with the Lord's Supper (which should be celebrated every Lord's Day).