Quote:
Originally Posted by armourbearer  Traditionally Word and Sacraments as means of grace were regarded as the objective marks of assurance, and the inward grace wrought by the Spirit as manifesting itself in subjective marks. The problem with the FV is its encouragement to look to baptism as efficacious in and of itself without pressing the need to observe whether the grace signified does in fact reveal itself in those evidences of a distinguishing work of God's Spirit. |
questions:
Baptism is efficacious...right?
Baptism (the efficacy of) is conferred by the Holy Ghost....right?
Does the grace have to be "revealed"...or does it just have to belong to those who "that grace" belongeth?
An infant does not "reveal", nor do people "observe", the grace that is effective in baptism, yet it still really belongs to those to whom grace is promised...right?
My questions arise from here:
WCF 28
Quote:
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6. The efficacy of baptism is not tied to that moment of time wherein it is administered; yet, notwithstanding, by the right use of this ordinance, the grace promised is not only offered, but really exhibited, and conferred, by the Holy Ghost, to such (whether of age or infants) as that grace belongeth unto, according to the counsel of God's own will, in his appointed time.
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Quote:
Originally Posted by armourbearer [u]The problem with the FV is its encouragement to look to baptism as efficacious in and of itself without pressing the need to observe [it] |
How doe the WCF 28 relate to this statement...How is the FV so far removed from this? How is the FV a problem, again?
Sorry for my slow learning...I just don't get it.