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Originally Posted by Leslie  Please show me where my logic is wrong. If translations and paraphrases are not inspired/infallible, then it follows that paraphrases of translations are also not inspired/infallible. The psalms that are sung in English are paraphrases (to correlate with the musical beat) of English translations. Therefore they are not inspired/infallible. So people who insist on singing only "inspired" songs, either EP or scripture-only, seem to be making a false distinction. Neither what they sing nor "Great Is Thy Faithfulness" is inspired/infallible--or am I missing something? |
That is why we interpret scripture as a whole, with single passages interpreted in the light of the the full message of scripture.
The early church fathers thought that the multiple and widespread writings (Gospels and epistles) were evidence of the truth of the received Bible against private traditions and readings.
This is why we have an open discussion of translations and the authority of the Church to ensure that translations are true to the originals.
If you think that a transalation renders a passage so different that its message is not inspired then by all means make that point, but a theoretical problem that does not exist and against which the Church is to guard does not make a denial of infallibility logical or reasonable.